Nursing Elites

1. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.

2. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a 6-month-old infant with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the infant’s heart rate is 90 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Reassess the heart rate in 30 minutes
• D. Administer half the prescribed dose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Digoxin should be withheld if the infant’s heart rate is below 100 beats per minute. Administering digoxin in this situation can further slow down the heart rate in infants with heart failure, leading to potential adverse effects. Reassessing the heart rate in 30 minutes is not the best immediate action to take, as prompt notification and withholding of the medication are crucial. Administering the medication as prescribed or giving half the dose can exacerbate the situation by potentially further lowering the heart rate.

4. What advice should be provided by the practical nurse to the mother of a school-age child with acute diarrhea and mild dehydration who is occasionally vomiting despite being given an oral rehydration solution (ORS)?

• A. Continue to give ORS frequently in small amounts.
• B. Alternate between ORS and carbonated beverages.
• C. Take the child to the hospital for intravenous fluids.
• D. Place the child NPO for the next eight to nine hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should advise the mother to continue providing the oral rehydration solution (ORS) frequently in small amounts. It is essential to continue ORS administration to prevent dehydration, even if the child is occasionally vomiting. Small, frequent amounts of ORS help maintain hydration levels in children with acute diarrhea and mild dehydration.

5. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Impaired urinary elimination.
• B. Risk for infection.
• C. Fluid volume excess.
• D. Risk for impaired skin integrity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, fluid volume excess is a priority nursing diagnosis due to the risk of edema and related complications. This patient may experience significant fluid retention, leading to edema, hypertension, and potential respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing fluid volume excess are crucial in preventing further complications and supporting the child's health during nephrotic syndrome. The other options are not the priority in this case. Impaired urinary elimination is not typically a primary concern in nephrotic syndrome. While infection is a risk due to compromised immunity, fluid volume excess poses a more immediate threat to the child's health. Risk for impaired skin integrity may be a concern secondary to edema, but addressing fluid volume excess takes precedence.

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