Nursing Elites

1. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give sugar water only.
• B. Offer the infant oral rehydration every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.

2. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
• B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
• C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
• D. Administer a stronger medication as requested

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.

3. A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Obtain a urine sample from the bedpan.
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• C. Measure the client's oral temperature.
• D. Remove dressing and assess surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.

4. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

5. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?

• A. Difference in the intake and output
• B. Changes in the mucous membranes
• C. Skin turgor
• D. Weekly weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with altered renal function being treated at home, weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Fluid retention or loss can significantly affect weight, making it a reliable measure. Choices A, B, and C are not as accurate indicators of fluid balance as weekly weight. Intake and output differences can vary in accuracy and may not capture all aspects of fluid balance. Changes in mucous membranes and skin turgor can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less precise indicators.

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