HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Instruct the mother to give sugar water only.
- B. Offer the infant oral rehydration every 2 hours.
- C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
- D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.
2. A client is admitted with pneumonia and is started on antibiotics. After 3 days, the client reports difficulty breathing and a rash. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Discontinue the antibiotic
- C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
- D. Call the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's difficulty breathing and rash suggest a possible allergic reaction to the antibiotic. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the antibiotic to prevent further exposure. Administering epinephrine should only be done in severe cases of anaphylaxis, which is not indicated solely by difficulty breathing and rash. While assessing the client's oxygen saturation is important, discontinuing the potential allergen takes precedence. Contacting the healthcare provider should be done after discontinuing the antibiotic and assessing the client to report the situation and seek further guidance.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate
- B. Apply a warm compress to the left leg
- C. Elevate the client's left leg
- D. Administer a prescribed anticoagulant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is a priority intervention for a client with suspected DVT. This action helps prevent the thrombus from dislodging and causing further complications. Encouraging ambulation may dislodge the clot, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Applying a warm compress can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging the clot. Administering anticoagulants is essential but should not be the first action as elevation helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with DVT.
4. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?
- A. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
- B. A vegetable salad with croutons and ranch dressing
- C. A grilled chicken breast with steamed vegetables
- D. A peanut butter and jelly sandwich with soda
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.
5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Coat the lining of the stomach
- B. Neutralize stomach acid
- C. Promote gastric motility
- D. Reduce gastric acid secretion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing the production of gastric acid in the stomach. This helps in managing GERD by decreasing the acidity levels in the stomach. Choice A is incorrect because omeprazole does not coat the lining of the stomach. Choice B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize stomach acid but rather reduces its production. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole does not promote gastric motility; instead, it acts on acid secretion.
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