Nursing Elites

1. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give sugar water only.
• B. Offer the infant oral rehydration every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.

2. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?

• A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
• B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
• C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
• D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

4. A nurse receives a report on a client who is four hours post-total abdominal hysterectomy. The previous nurse reported that it was necessary to change the client's perineal pad hourly and that it is again saturated. The previous nurse also reports that the client's urinary output has decreased. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Measure urinary output
• B. Assess for weakness or dizziness
• C. Increase IV fluids
• D. Check for vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Saturation of the perineal pad after a hysterectomy suggests excessive vaginal bleeding, which must be addressed immediately. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is the priority in this situation as it can lead to hypovolemic shock. Measuring urinary output, assessing for weakness or dizziness, and increasing IV fluids are important interventions but checking for vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to the risk of hemorrhage post-hysterectomy.

5. A client is admitted with pneumonia and is started on antibiotics. After 3 days, the client reports difficulty breathing and a rash. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
• D. Call the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's difficulty breathing and rash suggest a possible allergic reaction to the antibiotic. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the antibiotic to prevent further exposure. Administering epinephrine should only be done in severe cases of anaphylaxis, which is not indicated solely by difficulty breathing and rash. While assessing the client's oxygen saturation is important, discontinuing the potential allergen takes precedence. Contacting the healthcare provider should be done after discontinuing the antibiotic and assessing the client to report the situation and seek further guidance.

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