Nursing Elites

1. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give sugar water only.
• B. Offer the infant oral rehydration every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.

2. A client with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer prescribed diuretics
• B. Place the client in a supine position
• C. Restrict fluid intake immediately
• D. Increase the client's sodium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer prescribed diuretics. Diuretics are prescribed to reduce fluid overload in clients with heart failure. By promoting urine output, diuretics help alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and swelling. While placing the client in a supine position can help with breathing and fluid redistribution, administering diuretics takes precedence as it directly addresses fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake immediately may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate priority is to administer diuretics. Increasing the client's sodium intake would worsen fluid retention and is contraindicated in heart failure.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and sweaty. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 55 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Give the client a glucagon injection
• B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
• C. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.

4. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's best intervention to manage these symptoms?

• A. Offer frequent, small meals
• B. Administer antiemetics before meals
• C. Encourage the client to eat a high-fat diet
• D. Provide the client with cold, carbonated beverages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antiemetics before meals is the best intervention to manage nausea and vomiting in clients receiving chemotherapy. This proactive approach helps control symptoms by preventing nausea from occurring, rather than waiting to treat it once symptoms have already started. Offering frequent, small meals (choice A) may worsen symptoms in some cases due to increased stomach activity. Encouraging a high-fat diet (choice C) can be difficult for nauseated clients and may not alleviate symptoms. Providing cold, carbonated beverages (choice D) could exacerbate nausea further due to the temperature and carbonation.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously.
• B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• C. Provide oral glucose gel.
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously. In unconscious clients with hypoglycemia, IV dextrose rapidly raises the blood glucose level. Glucagon would be a slower option and is typically used if IV access is unavailable. Oral glucose gel is not appropriate for an unconscious client as it requires swallowing and may cause aspiration. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes delays immediate treatment and could lead to further deterioration.

Similar Questions