Nursing Elites

1. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give sugar water only.
• B. Offer the infant oral rehydration every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.

2. A teenager presents to the emergency department with palpitations after vaping at a party. The client is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse anticipate the client developing?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Metabolic acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation from anxiety or fear causes an excessive loss of CO2, leading to respiratory alkalosis. This shift in pH results from the rapid, shallow breathing that reduces the level of carbon dioxide in the blood. Respiratory acidosis would occur in cases of poor ventilation or CO2 retention, while metabolic acidosis/alkalosis relates to disturbances in bicarbonate, not breathing patterns. Therefore, in this case, the client's hyperventilation due to anxiety would likely result in respiratory alkalosis, making option B the correct choice.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• B. The client reports feeling weak and shaky
• C. The TPN bag is 5% dextrose
• D. The client reports feeling thirsty

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weakness and shakiness can indicate hypoglycemia, a potential complication of TPN. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess blood glucose levels and provide treatment as needed. Choice A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a 5% dextrose TPN bag is a standard concentration. Choice D is also incorrect as feeling thirsty is not a critical assessment finding requiring immediate intervention in this context.

4. A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Obtain a urine sample from the bedpan.
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• C. Measure the client's oral temperature.
• D. Remove dressing and assess surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.

5. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to

• A. Ask not to be assigned to this client or to work on another unit
• B. Tell the client that such behavior is inappropriate
• C. Inform the client that hospital policy prohibits staff from dating clients
• D. Discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.

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