Nursing Elites

1. What action should the nurse implement when the infusion of chemotherapy via an implanted medication port is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia at the outpatient oncology clinic?

• A. Administer Zofran
• B. Obtain blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
• C. Flush mediport with saline and heparin solution
• D. Initiate an infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when the chemotherapy infusion is complete is to flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This process helps prevent clotting and ensures the patency of the port, which is essential for future medication administrations and blood draws. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion. Obtaining blood samples (Choice B) for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets is important but not the immediate action after completing the infusion. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not required unless there is a specific indication for it.

2. When obtaining the nursing history of a 7-year-old child admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which finding should the nurse expect to obtain?

• A. High blood cholesterol level on routine screening.
• B. Increased thirst and urination.
• C. A recent strep throat infection.
• D. A recent DPT immunization.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a child with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), a common trigger to expect in the nursing history is a recent strep throat infection. AGN can be triggered by a streptococcal infection, leading to the deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli. This finding is crucial as it helps identify a potential cause for the development of AGN in the child. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as high blood cholesterol levels, increased thirst and urination, and recent DPT immunization are not directly associated with triggering acute glomerulonephritis in children.

3. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the procedure. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
• C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
• D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial when an infant scheduled for intussusception reduction passes a soft-formed brown stool as it may indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess if the procedure is still necessary or if further evaluation is required. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the immediate action required in this situation. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not necessary as the soft-formed brown stool is likely a result of the intussusception spontaneously reducing. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the most appropriate action when brown stool is passed before the procedure for intussusception reduction.

4. What suggestion should the nurse provide to prevent diaper rash in a 4-month-old infant as requested by the mother?

• A. Generously powder the baby's diaper area with talcum powder at each diaper change to promote dryness.
• B. Wash the diaper area every 2 hours with soap and water to help prevent skin breakdown.
• C. Use a barrier cream, such as zinc oxide, which does not have to be completely removed with each diaper change.
• D. Place a cloth diaper inside the disposable diaper for overnight periods when increased wearing time is likely.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a barrier cream like zinc oxide forms a protective layer on the skin, creating a barrier against irritants and moisture, thus helping to prevent diaper rash. Unlike other options, barrier creams do not need to be completely removed at each diaper change, allowing the skin to remain protected between changes.

5. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

Similar Questions