Nursing Elites

1. At the beginning of the shift, a nurse receives report for her daily assignment. Which of the following situations should the nurse give first priority?

• A. A diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL
• B. A family member of an elderly client who has questions
• C. A client with COPD with an oxygen saturation of 84%
• D. A client who requires assistance to use the bathroom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing the needs of clients, the nurse must begin with the unstable client or manage conditions that affect airway, breathing, or circulation first. The client with COPD has a condition that affects breathing and is exhibiting decreased oxygen saturation levels; therefore, this client should be the first priority. Option A, the diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL, does not present an immediate threat to airway, breathing, or circulation. Option B, addressing questions from a family member, is important but can be addressed after addressing critical patient needs. Option D, assisting a client to use the bathroom, is a routine task that can be prioritized after addressing urgent medical needs.

2. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

3. The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include?

• A. Options for smoking cessation
• B. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing
• C. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk
• D. Computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide to a patient with a significant smoking history is options for smoking cessation. Smoking is the primary cause of lung cancer, making smoking cessation essential in reducing the risk of developing the disease. Annual sputum cytology testing is not a standard screening test for lung cancer; instead, CT scanning is being explored for this purpose. Erlotinib therapy is used in lung cancer treatment but not for preventing tumor risk in individuals without cancer. CT screening for lung cancer is still under investigation and is not primarily aimed at prevention but rather early detection in high-risk individuals.

4. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

5. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
• B. Give the client Cogentin
• C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
• D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

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