Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following may be a cultural barrier that impacts a healthcare provider's ability to provide care or education to the client?

• A. A healthcare provider offers educational materials to a client that are written at an 8th-grade reading level
• B. A Vietnamese woman wants to use steaming in addition to her prescription antibiotics
• C. A healthcare provider uses pantomime to explain a procedure to a deaf client
• D. A Native American client requests a healing ritual before considering surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cultural barriers can impede communication, hindering a healthcare provider's ability to provide education or instructions about a client's care. In the context of cultural sensitivity, using pantomime to explain a procedure to a deaf client can be ineffective and inappropriate. This approach implies a lack of recognition of the importance of proper communication methods, such as sign language interpreters, which are crucial for effective communication with individuals who are deaf. Miscommunication is likely to occur if the client does not understand the gestures and actions of the healthcare provider. This scenario highlights the significance of understanding and respecting different cultural practices and communication needs to deliver optimal care and education. Choice A is incorrect because offering educational materials at an appropriate reading level demonstrates consideration for the client's literacy level, which can enhance understanding and compliance with medical instructions. Choice B is incorrect as incorporating a client's cultural practices, such as steaming, alongside prescribed treatments can be a part of culturally competent care. Choice D is incorrect as respecting a client's request for a healing ritual aligns with providing patient-centered care that acknowledges and integrates cultural beliefs and preferences.

2. You are caring for a patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis. Discharge instructions will likely include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. PT referral for development of a planned exercise program
• B. Avoidance of prolonged sun exposure
• C. Hot baths to promote muscle relaxation
• D. Instructions to evaluate the home environment to ensure safety

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Discharge instructions for a patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis should focus on promoting safety and minimizing exacerbations. Hot baths should be avoided as excessive heat can trigger acute symptoms. Therefore, instructions may include PT referral for an exercise program to maintain mobility, avoidance of prolonged sun exposure to prevent symptom exacerbation, and guidance to evaluate the home environment for safety as symptoms progress. Hot baths are not recommended due to the risk of exacerbating symptoms, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate for a patient with multiple sclerosis, as they address mobility, symptom management, and safety concerns, respectively.

3. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

5. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

• A. Air embolism.
• B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. Expansion of the clot.
• D. Resolution of the clot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

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