Nursing Elites

1. The discharge planning team is discussing plans for the dismissal of a 16-year-old admitted for complications associated with asthma. The client's mother has not participated in any of the discharge planning processes but has stated that she wants to be involved. Which of the following reasons might prohibit this mother from participating in discharge planning?

• A. The client is an emancipated minor
• B. The mother has to work and is unavailable
• C. The client has a job and a driver's license
• D. The mother does not speak English

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is that the client is an emancipated minor. Emancipated minors, even if they are under the age of 18, have the legal right to make decisions about their own healthcare and planning, which may include not wanting their parent involved in the discharge planning process. This status grants them independence from parental involvement in certain situations. The other choices are incorrect because the mother's work schedule, the client's job and possession of a driver's license, and the mother's language proficiency do not inherently prevent her from participating in the discharge planning process, unlike the legal status of being an emancipated minor.

2. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

• A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
• B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
• C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
• D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

3. What is the purpose of performing quality control?

• A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control.
• B. Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.
• C. Be required by law to be part of a quality assurance program.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing quality control is to enhance the accuracy and reliability of test results. Quality controls are crucial for ensuring the reliability of each analyte tested. While quality control is not mandated by specific laws, accrediting bodies often require it to maintain accreditation. Creating a paper trail and legal requirements are not the primary objectives of quality control, making choices A and C incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is to improve the accuracy and reliability of reported test results.

4. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

• A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
• B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
• C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
• D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

5. Mr. G has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury after a 12-foot fall. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure?

• A. Administer hypotonic solutions
• B. Keep the head of the bed elevated
• C. Increase the client's core body temperature to 99.9 degrees
• D. Administer corticosteroids as ordered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering corticosteroids as ordered is appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure in clients at risk of increased pressure to reduce brain tissue swelling. Elevating the head of the bed helps in managing intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage. Administering hypertonic solutions is used to reduce brain edema and control intracranial pressure. Increasing the client's core body temperature is not recommended as it can exacerbate brain injury. Corticosteroids are not routinely used for all head injuries but may be indicated in specific cases, such as certain types of brain injuries where swelling needs to be controlled.

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