which of the following is an example of intragroup conflict

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. Which of the following is an example of intragroup conflict?

A. A nurse writes a grant for a non-profit organization to raise money for advertising
B. Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client
C. A client does not receive his medication on time because the nurse was on break
D. A nurse feels frustrated that her employer does not provide on-site child care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intragroup conflict refers to disagreements within a group. The correct answer, 'Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client,' exemplifies this type of conflict well. In this scenario, professionals within the same team are unable to reach a consensus on how to proceed with client care. Choices A, C, and D do not reflect intragroup conflict. Writing a grant for a non-profit organization, a client not receiving medication due to a nurse's break, and a nurse feeling frustrated about the lack of on-site child care do not involve conflicts within a group of professionals.

2. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
B. Give the client Cogentin
C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

3. A client with asthma is being admitted for breathing difficulties. His arterial blood gas results are pH 7.26, PCO2 49, PaO2 90, and HCO3- 21. Which of the following best describes this condition?

A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
D. Compensated metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.26 and a PCO2 of 49, both of which are abnormal. A pH below the normal range of 7.35-7.45 indicates acidosis. The elevated PCO2 of 49 mmHg suggests respiratory acidosis as the primary issue. The normal range for PCO2 is 35-45 mmHg, so a value of 49 indicates the retention of excess CO2, leading to acidosis. The low HCO3- level of 21 also supports the presence of metabolic acidosis; however, the primary abnormality is respiratory, making this an uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.' Choice B, 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect because the client's pH is acidic, not alkalotic. Additionally, there is no compensation occurring for the primary respiratory acidosis indicated by the elevated PCO2. Choice C, 'Uncompensated metabolic acidosis,' is incorrect because while the HCO3- level is low, the primary issue indicated by the elevated PCO2 is respiratory acidosis. Choice D, 'Compensated metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect since the arterial blood gas results do not support a metabolic alkalosis. The low HCO3- level would typically be seen in metabolic acidosis, but in this case, the primary issue is respiratory acidosis.

4. What preparation is necessary for a colposcopy procedure?

A. NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedure.
B. D/C all hypertension medications for two days prior to the procedure.
C. Take three Dulcolax tablets and two containers of Miralax the day before to clear out the lower GI system.
D. None of the above prep is necessary for this type of procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A colposcopy procedure is performed to examine the vagina and cervix. The only preparation required is washing the external genitals with soap and water on the morning of the procedure. Choices A, B, and C suggest unnecessary preparations that are not relevant to a colposcopy. NPO for 8-12 hours, discontinuing hypertension medications, and using laxatives are not part of the standard preparation for a colposcopy.

5. A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam?

A. Start the hepatitis B immunization series.
B. Teach the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin.
C. Ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C.
D. Test for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam, according to CDC guidelines, is to ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C. CDC guidelines recommend screening patients born between 1945 and 1965 for hepatitis C due to the high prevalence of undiagnosed cases in this age group. Starting the hepatitis B immunization series is not necessary as the patient already had hepatitis A infection. Teaching the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin is not indicated in this scenario. Testing for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM) is not needed as the patient has already had hepatitis A.