Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

2. The depressed client verbalizes feelings of low self-esteem and self-worth, typified by statements such as "I'm such a failure"? I can't do anything right!"? The best nursing response would be:

• A. To tell the client this is not true; that we all have a purpose in life.
• B. To remain with the client and sit in silence; this will encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
• C. To reassure the client that you know how the client is feeling and that things will get better.
• D. To identify recent behaviors or accomplishments that demonstrate skill ability.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response in this situation is to reassure the client that you understand how they are feeling and provide hope for improvement. While acknowledging the client's feelings, it is essential to offer support and encouragement. Choice A is not the best response as it dismisses the client's feelings and offers a generalized statement. Choice B, remaining silent, may lead the client to feel unheard or unsupported. Choice D, identifying recent behaviors or accomplishments, may not be as effective in addressing the immediate emotional distress and negative self-talk expressed by the client. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response in this scenario, offering empathy and optimism to help the client feel understood and supported.

3. Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:

• A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• B. Radiology, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• C. Rest, Ice, Cast, Elevation
• D. Radiology, Ice, Cast, Elevation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.

4. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?

• A. The client is pregnant
• B. The client has hypertension
• C. The client is in renal failure
• D. The client has pancreatitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.

5. The charge nurse is notified that the unit will be receiving an admission of a client from another bed in the hospital in order to make room for others being admitted through the emergency room. The unit is the Women's Health Center of the hospital. Which of the following patients would be most appropriate to be transferred to this unit?

• A. A 26-year-old woman who had a bowel resection
• B. A 40-year-old man who underwent a hernia repair
• C. A 31-year-old woman with septicemia and who is on a ventilator
• D. A 91-year-old man with Alzheimer's disease recovering from a fall

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When deciding on transferring patients between units in a hospital, it is essential to consider the appropriateness of the patient for the receiving unit. The Women's Health Center typically caters to female patients with gynecological or obstetric conditions that do not require intensive monitoring or specialized care. In this scenario, the most suitable patient for transfer to the Women's Health Center would be the 26-year-old woman who had a bowel resection, as her condition aligns more closely with the services provided in that unit. The other options, including a male patient, a critically ill patient on a ventilator, and an elderly patient with Alzheimer's disease, would not be appropriate for transfer to a Women's Health Center due to the specialized care they require, which may not align with the unit's focus and staffing capabilities.

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