NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. You are caring for an infant who is just about 12 months old. Which assessment data is normal for the infant at this age?
- A. The infant had doubled their birth weight at twelve months.
- B. The infant had tripled their birth weight at twelve months.
- C. The mother reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight.
- D. The infant had grown � inch since last month.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The normal assessment data for the infant at 12 months of age is that the infant has doubled their birth weight at 12 months of age. The mother's reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight and the fact that the infant had grown � inch since last month are not normal assessment data. Infants are fed breast milk or formula every two to four hours with a total daily intake of 80 to 100 mLs per kilogram of body weight. As the neonate grows, they gain five to seven ounces during the first six months and then they double their birth weight during the first year; the head circumference increases a half inch each month for six months and then two tenths of an inch until the infant is one year of age. Similarly, the height or length of the newborn increases an inch a month for the first 6 months and then 1/2 inch a month until the infant is 1 year of age.
2. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?
- A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
- B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
- C. There is low-grade fever.
- D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.
3. The priority goal for a family who practices Chinese medicine would be to:
- A. Achieve harmony
- B. Maintain a balance of energy
- C. Respect life
- D. Restore yin and yang
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Chinese medicine, the concept of yin and yang represents the balance of opposing forces in the body. When there is an imbalance between yin and yang, it can result in illness. Therefore, the priority goal for a family practicing Chinese medicine would be to restore the harmony and balance between yin and yang. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority goal in Chinese medicine. While achieving harmony, maintaining a balance of energy, and respecting life are important aspects of Chinese medicine, the fundamental principle revolves around maintaining the equilibrium of yin and yang for optimal health.
4. A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:
- A. Malignant hyperthermia
- B. Heat exhaustion
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat cramps
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause both luid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of consciousness, or death.
5. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?
- A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
- B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
- C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
- D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.
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