HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals
1. While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?
- A. The client’s comfort level is increased when the nurse breaks eye contact to type notes into the record
- B. The interview process is enhanced with electronic documentation and allows the client to speak at a normal pace
- C. The nurse has limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically
- D. Completing the electronic record during an interview is a legal obligation of the examining nurse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choosing electronic documentation during an interview may hinder the nurse's ability to observe the client's nonverbal cues. Nonverbal communication, such as body language and facial expressions, plays a crucial role in understanding a client's feelings and needs. Focusing on entering data electronically may lead to missing important nonverbal cues that could provide valuable insights into the client's condition or emotions.
2. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.
3. Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Make the client comfortable and allow the client to sleep.
- B. Assess the client's neurologic status.
- C. Notify the surgeon about the comment.
- D. Ask the client's family to co-sign the operative permit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client's neurologic status next. The client's statement about aliens and subsequent falling asleep could be indicative of a potential neurological issue such as confusion or altered mental status. It is essential to assess the client's neurological status to determine the underlying cause of the client's statement and behavior. This assessment will help the nurse identify any potential cognitive impairment or neurological deficits that may need immediate attention, ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Notifying the surgeon or involving the client's family can be considered later, but the priority is to assess the client's neurologic status to address any immediate concerns.
4. The healthcare professional is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client with an antecubital saline lock. After opening the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should be taken first?
- A. Check for a blood return.
- B. Reposition the client's arm.
- C. Remove the IV site dressing.
- D. Flush the lock with saline.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client's arm is the initial action to take when encountering an obstruction with an antecubital saline lock. Repositioning may correct any bending at the elbow that could be causing the obstruction, allowing for smoother infusion flow. Checking for a blood return, removing the IV site dressing, or flushing the lock with saline would be subsequent actions once the obstruction is addressed. Checking for a blood return is done to confirm proper placement, removing the IV site dressing is necessary for site assessment, and flushing the lock with saline helps maintain patency but should not be the first action when an obstruction is detected.
5. A client is admitted with a fever of unknown origin. To assess fever patterns, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the client’s temperature fluctuations
- B. Assess for flushed, warm skin consistently
- C. Measure temperature at regular intervals
- D. Use different sites for temperature measurement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To assess fever patterns accurately, the nurse should measure the client’s temperature at regular intervals. This approach helps in identifying the pattern of fever spikes and fluctuations, which can provide valuable information for diagnostic and treatment purposes. Assessing for flushed, warm skin or documenting circadian rhythms may not directly reveal the fever pattern, while varying temperature measurement sites could lead to inconsistent readings. Therefore, measuring temperature at regular intervals is the most appropriate intervention to identify fever patterns in this scenario.
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