which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time out when disciplining a 4 year old
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

2. Which approach would the healthcare provider use when managing the care of a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider would assist the client with the development of healthy, adaptive coping mechanisms. GAD is characterized by the maladaptive use of worrying as a coping mechanism. The ultimate goal is for the healthcare provider to help the client replace the ineffective worrying with effective, healthy coping mechanisms. Creating an anxiety-free environment is not feasible or recommended; the goal is to help the client learn to deal with anxiety in a healthy manner. While identifying triggers is important, avoiding all triggers that produce anxiety is often impractical. Providing reinforcement that anxiety issues can be eliminated is not appropriate as anxiety is a normal human experience that needs to be managed effectively rather than eliminated completely.

3. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.

4. The nurse transcribes the postoperative prescriptions for a client who returns to the unit following surgery and notes that an antihypertensive medication that was prescribed preoperatively is not listed. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has noted that an antihypertensive medication prescribed preoperatively is missing from the postoperative prescriptions. It is essential to renew preoperative medications postoperatively. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the antihypertensive medication. Consulting with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication is not appropriate in this situation as pharmacists do not prescribe or renew medications. Administering the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively without a current prescription poses a risk to the client's safety. Withholding the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable does not address the issue of the missing prescription and delays the client's necessary treatment.

5. A 37-year-old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagia resulting in anemia. She also has depression and pelvic pain. She is crying and states, 'I don't know what to do"?my primary health care provider is recommending a hysterectomy, but I haven't had children yet!' Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide an open-ended question to encourage further expression. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse can create a supportive environment for the client. This approach allows the client to explore her emotions and concerns freely. Option A, suggesting adoption, may come across as dismissive of the client's current emotional state and may not address her immediate needs. Option D is insensitive and dismissive of the client's feelings and desires regarding having children. It is important to avoid making assumptions or judgments about the client's situation. Option C is a duplicate of Option B, and while it shows empathy, it lacks variety in communication, which may limit the depth of the conversation and the nurse's understanding of the client's needs.

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