which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time out when disciplining a 4 year old
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

2. Which approach would be most appropriate for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate approach for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy is open communication. Maintaining open communication is crucial in building a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Confrontation may cause the parent to become defensive and hinder effective communication. Health teaching about childrearing may not be well-received at this point as the parent may not be ready for it. Validation of the child's physical status may inadvertently reinforce the parent's behavior by focusing solely on physical symptoms rather than addressing the underlying issues.

3. After informing an older client that an IV line needs to be inserted, the client becomes very apprehensive, loudly verbalizing a dislike for all healthcare providers and nurses. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should respond with a calm demeanor to help reduce the client's apprehension. By calmly reassuring the client that the discomfort from the procedure will be temporary, the nurse acknowledges the client's feelings and provides comfort. This response shows empathy and understanding, which can help build trust. Asking the client to remain quiet may escalate the situation and not address the client's underlying concerns. Concentrating solely on completing the insertion efficiently may overlook the client's emotional needs and may increase their anxiety. Telling a joke may not be appropriate in this serious situation and could be perceived as insensitive, failing to address the client's emotional distress effectively.

4. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.

5. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

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