which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time out when disciplining a 4 year old
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

2. Which approach would be most appropriate for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate approach for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy is open communication. Maintaining open communication is crucial in building a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Confrontation may cause the parent to become defensive and hinder effective communication. Health teaching about childrearing may not be well-received at this point as the parent may not be ready for it. Validation of the child's physical status may inadvertently reinforce the parent's behavior by focusing solely on physical symptoms rather than addressing the underlying issues.

3. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indiff�rence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.

4. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. What action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is the responsibility of the surgeon to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. While the nurse can witness the client's signature on the permit, the procedure must first be explained by the healthcare provider or surgeon, including addressing the client's questions. Therefore, informing the surgeon is the priority to ensure proper communication and consent before the surgery. Answering the client's questions about the surgery (Choice B) may not provide accurate information and could lead to misunderstanding. Reassuring the client (Choice D) is important, but obtaining proper consent and addressing concerns should come first. Witnessing the client's signature (Choice A) is not sufficient if the client has unanswered questions and the permit is not signed.

5. A client comes into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He is anxious, visibly upset, and keeps looking behind him to the waiting room. When the nurse asks his chief complaint, he says, 'My roommate is trying to kill me.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response of the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Upon initial assessment of a client who appears anxious and upset, with claims that need further exploration, the nurse's initial response should be to gather more information about the situation. By asking 'Why is your roommate trying to kill you?' the nurse shows empathy while trying to understand the patient's perspective. This open-ended question allows the nurse to assess the situation comprehensively. Options A and D jump to conclusions or suggest actions without understanding the situation. Option B focuses solely on medication without addressing the underlying issue. It is crucial to assess the situation further before taking any action or providing treatment.

Similar Questions

Which client is most likely to be at risk for spiritual distress?
What initial treatment would the nurse expect for a preschool-aged child experiencing severe fear of the dark?
During the beginning phase of a therapeutic relationship, why is a clear understanding of participants' roles important?
An adolescent client comes to the clinic 3 weeks after the birth of her first baby. She tells the nurse she is concerned because she has not returned to her pre-pregnant weight. Which action should the nurse perform first?
The nurse is caring for a Native American patient who has traditional beliefs about health and illness. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses