which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time out when disciplining a 4 year old
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

2. What is the nurse's initial plan for providing pain relief measures during labor for a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse, scheduling pain medication at regular intervals is the initial plan for providing pain relief during labor. This client may have a lower tolerance for pain and a greater need for pain relief. If medication is only administered when the pain is severe, larger doses may be needed, leading to increased anxiety and discomfort. Avoiding medication unless requested is not ideal, as proactive pain management is crucial during labor. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with others is incorrect, as individuals with a history of opioid abuse often require more medication due to tolerance to addictive drugs.

3. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

4. Which characteristic is associated with anorexia nervosa?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals with anorexia nervosa often exhibit perfectionistic traits, characterized by rigid standards and extreme self-discipline as a way to maintain control and fulfill personal and societal expectations. The focus on achieving an ideal body image through strict dietary habits and excessive exercise is a common manifestation of this perfectionism. The incorrect choices are: A) 'Manic' is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; individuals with this disorder are more likely to experience anxiety and depression. B) 'Rebellious' does not align with the usual behavior seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa, who tend to comply with societal expectations rather than rebel against them. C) 'Hypoactive' does not describe the characteristic behavior of individuals with anorexia nervosa, who often engage in excessive physical activity as a means of weight loss.

5. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of "suppression"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is "I don't remember anything about what happened to me." This statement indicates the use of suppression, which is the willful act of putting an unacceptable thought or feeling out of one's mind. In this case, the client is deliberately excluding memories of the traumatic event to protect their self-esteem. The other choices do not reflect suppression: Choice B shows avoidance or deflection, Choice C demonstrates blame shifting, and Choice D indicates empathy towards another individual.

Similar Questions

Which response would the nurse make to a client with schizophrenia who claims to be Joan of Arc about to be burned at the stake?
A client with invasive carcinoma of the bladder is scheduled for a cystectomy and an ileal conduit. The client expresses worries about the possibility of offensive odors associated with the urinary diversion. How would the nurse respond?
A 20-year-old young adult has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the adult in?
Which response would the nurse provide to a client in labor at 32 weeks' gestation who tells the nurse that she and her husband are very concerned because the baby will be born 2 months early?
A client asks the nurse, 'Should I tell my partner that I just found out I'm human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive?' Which is the nurse's most appropriate response?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses