which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time out when disciplining a 4 year old
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

2. Which behavior would the nurse recognize as developmentally atypical in preschoolers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is feeling happy if there is a newborn in the family. Preschoolers are more likely to exhibit feelings of stress and jealousy rather than happiness with the arrival of a new baby in the family. Thumb sucking and bed-wetting are common behaviors displayed by preschoolers during times of stress. Guilt typically arises in children when they perceive that they have not behaved appropriately. Preschoolers are known to be naturally curious about their surroundings, showing an interest in exploring and learning about the environment around them. Therefore, feeling happy with the birth of a new baby is developmentally atypical for preschoolers.

3. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.

4. A 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program and is wheelchair-mobile has redness in the sacral area. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, as prolonged pressure on the skin can lead to tissue damage. Repositioning helps relieve pressure on vulnerable areas like the sacrum. Increasing fluid intake can also aid in preventing skin breakdown by maintaining skin hydration. While a vitamin supplement may support overall health, it is not as critical as repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers. Purchasing a new wheelchair is an expensive intervention and should be considered a last resort after implementing less costly preventive measures.

5. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

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