NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A female nurse is assessing a male patient of Arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches. It is most important for the nurse to intervene if she takes which action?
- A. The nurse explains the 0 to 10 intensity pain scale.
- B. The nurse asks the patient when the headaches started.
- C. The nurse sits down at the bedside and closes the privacy curtain.
- D. The nurse calls for a male nurse to bring a hospital gown to the room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In some Arab cultures, it is not considered appropriate for a male to be alone with a female who is not his spouse. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to respect the patient's cultural beliefs and privacy by ensuring that a female nurse is not alone with the male patient. Sitting down at the bedside and closing the privacy curtain could potentially lead to a situation where the nurse is alone with the patient, which goes against the patient's cultural norms. The other actions, such as explaining the pain scale, asking about the onset of headaches, and requesting a male nurse to bring a hospital gown, are all appropriate and do not conflict with the patient's cultural beliefs.
2. What feeling is likely to result from withdrawn behavior?
- A. Anger
- B. Paranoia
- C. Loneliness
- D. Boredom
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Withdrawn behavior involves avoiding social interactions and isolating oneself. This isolation can lead to feelings of loneliness as the individual lacks connection and companionship. While anger or paranoia may contribute to withdrawal, loneliness is a common emotional consequence of prolonged social isolation. Boredom may also arise from withdrawal if meaningful activities and social engagements are reduced.
3. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?
- A. Reflection
- B. Regression
- C. Repudiation
- D. Reconciliation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.
4. Which intervention should the nurse use for a client who hallucinates, yells, and curses throughout the day?
- A. Ignore the client's behavior if the client is not harming anyone.
- B. Isolate the client until the behavior decreases or stops.
- C. Explain how the behavior affects other people on the unit.
- D. Seek to understand what the behavior means to the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences hallucinations, yells, and curses, it is essential to seek to understand the underlying meaning of their behavior. All behavior has significance, and understanding the client's perspective can guide appropriate interventions. Ignoring the behavior may exacerbate the situation and isolating the client could lead to increased anxiety and further acting out. Explaining the impact on others is not helpful in this scenario as the client is not intentionally hallucinating; yelling and cursing are responses to the hallucinations.
5. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?
- A. Galactorrhea
- B. Gynecomastia
- C. Amenorrhea
- D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access