NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. The client admitted for uncontrolled diabetes is worried about how to pay bills for the family while hospitalized. Which statement by the nurse is therapeutic?
- A. "You are worried about paying your bills?"
- B. "Don't worry; your bills will get paid eventually."
- C. "When was the last time you were admitted for hyperglycemia?"
- D. "You really shouldn't be drinking alcohol because of your diagnosis of diabetes."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic communication technique used in this scenario is reflection. By repeating the client's concern, the nurse acknowledges the client's feelings and encourages further exploration of the topic. Choice A is correct as it reflects the client's worry without offering false assurance, advice, or using professional jargon. Choice B dismisses the client's concerns with false reassurance. Choice C introduces professional jargon, which may hinder effective communication. Choice D provides advice, which can limit the client's expression of feelings and concerns.
2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
3. A client states that she is angry and feels rejected by her boyfriend. Which action would the nurse encourage?
- A. Call the boyfriend to work things out.
- B. Avoid confronting the boyfriend.
- C. Date new people whenever possible.
- D. Learn to constructively vent anger.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to learn to constructively vent anger. Coping mechanisms, such as venting anger, can help the client address feelings of rejection. Calling the boyfriend to work things out is offering unsolicited advice and may not be effective in managing emotions. Avoiding confronting the boyfriend may reduce anxiety temporarily but will not assist in resolving the underlying issues. Encouraging the client to date new people whenever possible is not appropriate at this stage, as it is essential for the client to work through the current crisis before considering new relationships.
4. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
- B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can remain unaffected by obesity.
- C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
- D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.
5. A 28-year-old woman is recovering from her third consecutive spontaneous abortion in 2 years. Which is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for this client at her follow-up appointment?
- A. Focusing on the client's physical needs
- B. Encouraging the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss
- C. Reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again
- D. Encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client recovering from multiple spontaneous abortions is to encourage the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss. This allows the client to express and process her emotions, facilitating the grieving process and emotional healing. Focusing solely on the client's physical needs, as in choice A, overlooks the importance of addressing the emotional aspect of the client's experience. Choice C, reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again, fails to acknowledge the current loss and may minimize the client's feelings of grief. Choice D, encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future, does not directly address the client's immediate emotional needs related to the recent loss. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate intervention to support the client in coping with her emotional distress.
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