NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?
- A. She is depressed and needs gentle, positive support during labor.
- B. She is experiencing anticipatory grief and withdrawing from bonding.
- C. She is in need of emotional support to help her cope with the impending birth.
- D. She is struggling to cope with the birth by using the word 'it.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.
2. A new mother with class II heart disease tells the nurse that she is afraid her heart condition will prevent her from caring for her baby at home when she is discharged. How would the nurse respond?
- A. Suggest that the client arrange for help at home
- B. Ask the client to describe her concerns more fully
- C. Tell the client to speak to her primary health care provider about her concerns
- D. Recommend that the client schedule times when family members can assist her
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client expresses fear or concern, it is essential for the nurse to first explore and understand the client's feelings and worries. Asking the client to describe her concerns more fully allows the nurse to gather more information, which is crucial in providing appropriate support and guidance. Suggesting that the client arrange for help at home is presumptuous and may not align with the client's preferences or resources. Telling the client to speak to her primary health care provider shifts the responsibility and does not directly address the client's immediate fears. Recommending that she schedule times when family members can assist her assumes the availability and willingness of family members without addressing the client's emotional needs and fears directly.
3. A client decides to have hospice care rather than undergo an extensive surgical procedure. Which ethical principle does the client's behavior illustrate?
- A. Justice
- B. Veracity
- C. Autonomy
- D. Beneficence
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Autonomy.' Autonomy refers to an individual's right to make decisions about their own care. In this scenario, the client is choosing hospice care over surgery, demonstrating their autonomy in making healthcare choices. Justice involves fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and services, which is not the primary ethical principle illustrated in this case. Veracity pertains to truthfulness and honesty, which is not directly related to the client's decision-making process. Beneficence refers to the duty to do good and act in the best interest of the patient, which is not the central ethical principle demonstrated by the client's decision for hospice care.
4. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- C. Bipolar disorder
- D. Delusional disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.
5. Which benefit accompanies mild apprehension?
- A. Physiological functions are slowed.
- B. There is an increased alertness.
- C. Behavioral responses become automatic.
- D. Ego defense mechanisms are mobilized.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A mild level of anxiety can be beneficial because it increases alertness and focuses attention. Physiological functions are actually amplified initially, not slowed, due to mild apprehension; however, prolonged anxiety can lead to decreased function due to exhaustion. Automatic behavioral responses and ego defense mechanisms may hinder an individual's awareness rather than enhancing it, making them less beneficial compared to increased alertness.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access