NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. What approach should the nurse use when a manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors asks the nurse to talk while the nurse is orienting a new client to the unit?
- A. Suggest that the client requesting attention speak with another staff member.
- B. Leave the new client, saying, 'I'll talk with the other client until things calm down.'
- C. Introduce the two clients and suggest that the client join them on a tour of the facility.
- D. Say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should respond to the manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors by setting realistic limits on behavior without rejecting the client. Therefore, the correct approach is to say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.' This response acknowledges the client's request while prioritizing the needs of the new client and setting appropriate boundaries. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suggesting that the client speak with another staff member would be a rejection of the client, not the behavior. Leaving the new client to attend to the manipulative client would encourage further manipulation and disrupt the orientation process for the new client. Introducing the two clients and suggesting a tour is inconsistent with setting limits and does not address the manipulative behavior being displayed.
2. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?
- A. Anger
- B. Apathy
- C. Anxiety
- D. Agitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indiff�rence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.
3. A 17-year-old Asian client is being seen for lower abdominal pain in the right quadrant. The client is accompanied by his parents. The nurse notes that the client's father does not make eye contact and shows little response when told that the client will need surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
- A. Contact an interpreter to give the information again in the father's native language
- B. Continue to provide information about surgery to both the client and his parents
- C. Call social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care
- D. Contact the physician about postponing the surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nurses may work with clients who have varying cultural beliefs. Because of this, nurses must remain aware of the cultural practices associated with certain ethnic groups. Asian Americans may avoid eye contact as a sign of respect; additionally, emotional responses may be avoided except for in private situations. If this family did not have a language barrier, the nurse should continue to provide appropriate information about the surgery and recognize the cultural differences that exist. Contacting an interpreter is not necessary as there was no mention of a language barrier. Calling social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care is premature and not within the nurse's immediate scope of practice. Contacting the physician about postponing the surgery is not warranted based on the information provided.
4. A client has a nursing diagnosis of Altered sleep patterns related to nocturia. Which client instruction is important for the nurse to provide?
- A. Decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal.
- B. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day.
- C. Drink a glass of warm decaffeinated beverage at bedtime.
- D. Consult the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nocturia is characterized by urination during the night, disrupting sleep patterns. Instructing the client to decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal (Option A) can help reduce the production of urine, thereby decreasing the need to void at night. Cranberry juice (Option B) is beneficial for preventing bladder infections but does not address the issue of nocturia. While warm decaffeinated beverages (Option C) may promote sleep, consuming fluids close to bedtime can exacerbate nocturia. Consulting the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill (Option D) is not the first-line intervention and may lead to urinary incontinence if the client is sedated and unable to awaken to void, worsening the nocturia issue.
5. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor carefully for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction for the past week?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Albumin
- C. Calcium
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's serum sodium levels carefully when they have been on nasogastric (NG) tube suction for an extended period. Prolonged NG suctioning can lead to fluid loss and subsequent hyponatremia. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications. White blood cell count (Option A), albumin (Option B), and calcium (Option C) are not typically affected by prolonged NG suctioning. Therefore, these values are not the priority for monitoring in this situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access