Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client comes to the clinic 3 weeks after the birth of her first baby. She tells the nurse she is concerned because she has not returned to her pre-pregnant weight. Which action should the nurse perform first?

• A. Review the client's weight pattern over the year
• B. Ask the mother to record her diet for the last 24 hours
• C. Encourage her to talk about her view of herself
• D. Give her several pamphlets on postpartum nutrition

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the adolescent client to talk about her view of herself is the first action the nurse should take. Body image is crucial for adolescents, especially after pregnancy. By addressing the client's concerns about her weight and discussing her self-perception, the nurse can provide emotional support and open a dialogue for further assessment and teaching. Choice A, 'Review the client's weight pattern over the year,' is not the priority at this time as the client's immediate concern is her post-pregnancy weight. Choice B, 'Ask the mother to record her diet for the last 24 hours,' focuses on dietary habits rather than addressing the client's emotional concerns. Choice D, 'Give her several pamphlets on postpartum nutrition,' may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's emotional needs and concerns.

2. By rolling contaminated gloves inside-out, the nurse is affecting which step in the chain of infection?

• A. Mode of transmission
• B. Portal of entry
• C. Reservoir
• D. Portal of exit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the nurse rolls contaminated gloves inside-out, they are manipulating the mode of transmission in the chain of infection. The gloves, which are contaminated, act as a vehicle for transferring pathogens from the reservoir's portal of exit to a potential portal of entry. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the action of rolling contaminated gloves does not directly relate to the portal of entry, reservoir, or portal of exit in the chain of infection.

3. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

• A. Pick's disease
• B. Syphilis
• C. Encephalopathy
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

4. What is the best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder?

• A. Establishing clear boundaries
• B. Exploring vocational possibilities
• C. Discussing feelings of victimization
• D. Spending 1 to 2 hours per day with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder is to establish clear boundaries. Individuals with this disorder struggle with impulsivity and have difficulty recognizing and respecting boundaries in their relationships. By establishing clear boundaries, it helps provide structure and consistency to the client, aiding in their treatment and management of the disorder. Exploring vocational possibilities may be important at some point, but it is not the priority intervention for managing borderline personality disorder. Discussing feelings of victimization, while common, may not be as effective initially due to the client's lack of insight and resistance. Spending 1 to 2 hours per day with the client may not be as productive as shorter, more focused interactions that are geared towards boundary reinforcement.

5. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

• A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
• B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
• C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
• D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

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