Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client comes to the clinic 3 weeks after the birth of her first baby. She tells the nurse she is concerned because she has not returned to her pre-pregnant weight. Which action should the nurse perform first?

• A. Review the client's weight pattern over the year
• B. Ask the mother to record her diet for the last 24 hours
• C. Encourage her to talk about her view of herself
• D. Give her several pamphlets on postpartum nutrition

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the adolescent client to talk about her view of herself is the first action the nurse should take. Body image is crucial for adolescents, especially after pregnancy. By addressing the client's concerns about her weight and discussing her self-perception, the nurse can provide emotional support and open a dialogue for further assessment and teaching. Choice A, 'Review the client's weight pattern over the year,' is not the priority at this time as the client's immediate concern is her post-pregnancy weight. Choice B, 'Ask the mother to record her diet for the last 24 hours,' focuses on dietary habits rather than addressing the client's emotional concerns. Choice D, 'Give her several pamphlets on postpartum nutrition,' may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's emotional needs and concerns.

2. Which behavior best indicates that the client has received adequate preparation for the scheduled diagnostic studies?

• A. Asks for the tests to be explained again
• B. Checks the appointment card multiple times
• C. Arrives early and waits quietly to be called for the tests
• D. Paces back and forth in the hallway on the morning of the tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is arriving early and waiting quietly to be called for the tests. This behavior indicates that the client is prepared, as early arrival suggests an expected degree of anxiety and the quiet waiting indicates a lower level of anxiety and adequate preparation. Asking for the tests to be explained again may signal inadequate explanation, nervousness, or poor memory. Checking the appointment card repeatedly or pacing up and down the hallway indicate a high level of anxiety, which could be associated with inadequate teaching. Nurses providing preprocedural teaching should assess for anxiety related to procedures, coping mechanisms, and retention of information post-teaching. If issues are identified, strategies such as paraphrasing information, having a support person present, seeking advice from someone who has undergone the procedure, or visiting the test center beforehand can be utilized.

3. A client recently had an abdominoperineal resection and colostomy. While the nurse changes the dressing, the client states, 'You think that it looks repulsive.' The nurse identifies that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Projection
• B. Sublimation
• C. Compensation
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Projection. Projection is the defense mechanism where unacceptable feelings and emotions are attributed to others. In this scenario, the client is projecting their own feelings of repulsion onto the nurse. Sublimation involves substituting socially acceptable feelings to replace threatening ones. Compensation refers to overachievement in a different area to cover up a weakness. Intellectualization is the use of mental reasoning to avoid facing emotional aspects of a situation.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

• A. An attempt to punish the nursing staff
• B. A constructive method of accepting reality
• C. A defense against underlying depression and fear
• D. An effort to maintain life and to live it as fully as possible

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

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