Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?

• A. Irreversible
• B. Easily available
• C. User-friendly
• D. Effective with least side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Irreversible.' An ideal contraceptive should not be irreversible because it should allow individuals to have the option to discontinue its use if desired. Choices B, C, and D are characteristics of an ideal contraceptive. Contraceptives should be easily available to ensure widespread accessibility, user-friendly to promote proper and consistent use, and effective with minimal side effects to maximize safety and tolerability.

2. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

• A. Progesterone/estrogen
• B. LH/FSH
• C. FSH/LH
• D. Glucagon/insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.

3. When does threatened abortion occur?

• A. The patient experiences slight vaginal bleeding through an undilated cervix.
• B. The patient experiences heavy bleeding and cervical dilation.
• C. The patient experiences severe cramping and heavy bleeding.
• D. The patient experiences painless bleeding and an open cervix.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Threatened abortion occurs when the patient experiences slight vaginal bleeding through an undilated cervix. This is characterized by bleeding without cervical dilation, distinguishing it from inevitable abortion (heavy bleeding and cervical dilation), incomplete abortion (severe cramping and heavy bleeding), and missed abortion (painless bleeding and an open cervix).

4. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:

• A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
• B. Chorionic villus sampling
• C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
• D. Ultrasound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.

5. Which female reproductive organ is positioned directly posterior to the bladder?

• A. Uterine tube
• B. Vagina
• C. Uterus
• D. Ovaries

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the uterus. The uterus is positioned directly posterior to the bladder in the female reproductive system. The uterine tube (choice A) is also known as the fallopian tube, which is not positioned directly posterior to the bladder. The vagina (choice B) is located below the uterus and not directly posterior to the bladder. The ovaries (choice D) are located on either side of the uterus, but they are not positioned directly posterior to the bladder.

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