Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following ethical principles is involved when a healthcare provider allows a patient to refuse treatment?

• A. Autonomy
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Beneficence
• D. Justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that respects an individual's right to make their own decisions, including the right to refuse treatment. This principle acknowledges the patient's self-governance and independence in making choices about their own healthcare. Choice B, Nonmaleficence, refers to the ethical principle of doing no harm and ensuring patient safety. Choice C, Beneficence, involves promoting the patient's well-being and acting in their best interest. Choice D, Justice, pertains to fairness and equitable distribution of healthcare resources.

2. The client has been diagnosed with primary aldosteronism. Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse expect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism involves the overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Aldosterone increases potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, in primary aldosteronism, the nurse would expect to find hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia (choice A), hyponatremia (choice C), or hypercalcemia (choice D).

3. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

4. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume?

• A. The client taking diuretics
• B. The client with renal failure
• C. The client with an ileostomy
• D. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with renal failure are unable to excrete fluids effectively, leading to an increased risk of fluid volume excess. Option A, the client taking diuretics, would be at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased urine output caused by the diuretics. Option C, the client with an ileostomy, is at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased output from the ileostomy. Option D, the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning, may be at risk for dehydration, but not specifically excess fluid volume.

5. The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate.
• B. Monitor blood glucose every twelve (12) hours.
• C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning.
• D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Precautions for clients receiving TPN include placing the solution on an IV pump to control the rate, monitoring blood glucose levels to detect hyperglycemia, and monitoring intake and output to assess fluid balance. Changing the IV tubing every three days is not a standard precaution for clients receiving TPN via a subclavian line.

Similar Questions