Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

• A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
• B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
• C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
• D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is a hallmark finding in SIADH due to the imbalance between water and sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with SIADH. Hypercalcemia (Choice C) involves elevated calcium levels, which are not directly related to SIADH. Hypernatremia (Choice D) is the opposite of what occurs in SIADH, where sodium levels are usually diluted due to water retention.

3. Clinical manifestations associated with a diagnosis of type 1 DM include all of the following except:

• A. Hypoglycemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Ketonuria.
• D. Polyphagia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes mellitus include hypoglycemia, ketonuria, and polyphagia. Hyponatremia is not typically associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus; it is more commonly linked with other conditions such as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) or heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Hyponatremia.

4. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

5. What is the lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of DM?

• A. 90 mg/dl.
• B. 115 mg/dl.
• C. 126 mg/dl.
• D. 180 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dl or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Choice A (90 mg/dl) is too low to indicate diabetes. Choice B (115 mg/dl) is also below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Choice D (180 mg/dl) is above the diagnostic threshold and would indicate uncontrolled diabetes, not the lowest level suggestive of a diagnosis.

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