Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

• A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
• B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
• C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
• D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

2. What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?

• A. 6-8 hours.
• B. 10-14 hours.
• C. 16-20 hours.
• D. 24-28 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.

3. During a physical assessment of a client with type 2 DM, a nurse notes the following findings: fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dl, temperature of 101°F, pulse 88 bpm, respirations 22/min, and BP 140/84 mmHg. Which finding should concern the nurse the most?

• A. Pulse
• B. BP
• C. Respiration
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Temperature.' A temperature of 101°F indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection. In individuals with diabetes, infections can lead to significant complications and affect blood glucose control. Monitoring and addressing infections promptly are crucial in individuals with diabetes to prevent worsening of their condition. Choice A, 'Pulse,' is within the normal range (60-100 bpm) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Choice B, 'BP,' while slightly elevated, is not as acutely concerning as an elevated temperature in this scenario. Choice C, 'Respiration,' falls within the normal range (12-20 breaths/min) and is not the most concerning finding among the options provided.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. Which of the following best describes the nurse's responsibility in obtaining informed consent?

• A. The nurse is responsible for ensuring that the patient understands the procedure and has the opportunity to ask questions.
• B. The nurse should ensure that the patient signs the consent form before the procedure begins.
• C. The nurse is responsible for witnessing the patient sign the consent form and documenting the event.
• D. The nurse should delegate the task of obtaining informed consent to another healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider, in this case, the nurse, ensures that the patient understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives before they agree to it. The nurse plays a crucial role in facilitating this understanding by explaining the information in a clear and understandable manner and providing the patient with the opportunity to ask questions. Choice B is incorrect because merely obtaining the patient's signature on the consent form does not ensure that the patient truly understands what they are consenting to. Choice C is not fully accurate as the nurse's role goes beyond just witnessing the signature; it involves actively ensuring the patient's comprehension. Choice D is incorrect as the responsibility of obtaining informed consent should not be delegated to another healthcare provider, as it is the nurse's duty to ensure proper communication and understanding with the patient.

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