Nursing Elites

1. Which desired outcome written by the nurse is correctly written and measurable?

• A. Client will have a normal bowel pattern by April 2
• B. The client will lose 4 lbs. within the next 2 weeks
• C. The nurse will provide skin care at least 3 times each day
• D. The client will breathe better after resting for 10 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An outcome statement must describe the observable client behavior that should occur in response to the nursing interventions. It consists of a subject, action verb, conditions under which the behavior is to be performed, and the level at which the client will perform the desired behavior. Option B is correctly written and measurable as it includes all the required elements: subject (client), action verb (lose), conditions (within the next 2 weeks), and the level at which the behavior should occur (4 lbs.). Option A lacks the conditions and a specific level, making it not measurable. Option C is a nursing intervention rather than a client goal. Option D does not provide a specific level at which the client should perform the desired behavior, making it not measurable as well.

2. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Push hard
• B. Push fast
• C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
• D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to auscultate the abdomen. How should they proceed?

• A. Warm the endpiece of the stethoscope by rubbing it between their hands.
• B. Ensure the patient is adequately covered and comfortable during the examination.
• C. Ensure that the diaphragm side of the stethoscope is in use.
• D. Check the room temperature and offer blankets to the patient if needed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing to auscultate the abdomen, it is important to ensure the patient's comfort. The room should be warm to prevent shivering, which can interfere with sound clarity. Offering blankets to the patient if they feel cold helps maintain their comfort during the examination. The endpiece of the stethoscope should be warmed by rubbing it between the examiner's hands, not by placing it in warm water. It is important to use the diaphragm, not the bell, of the stethoscope to auscultate for bowel sounds. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, as it addresses the patient's comfort and the room temperature, which are essential for a successful abdominal auscultation.

4. Your patient who had AIDS/HIV has just died. Should you still use standard precautions as you provide post-mortem care?

• A. Yes, because the virus is still transmissible
• B. Yes, because respect must still be maintained
• C. No, because the virus is no longer transmissible
• D. No, because it is disrespectful

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, you should still use standard precautions even after an HIV/AIDS patient has died. The virus can remain infectious after death, and healthcare workers need to protect themselves from potential exposure. Choice B is incorrect because while respect is important, the primary reason for using standard precautions is to prevent transmission of infectious diseases. Choice C is incorrect as the virus can still be transmissible even after the patient's death. Choice D is incorrect as using standard precautions is a matter of infection control, not a question of respect.

5. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?

• A. Nephrotoxic medications
• B. Pericardial tamponade
• C. Neurogenic bladder
• D. Polycystic kidney disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.

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