Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

2. When would chest thrusts be performed in an emergency situation?

• A. When performing CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation.
• B. When assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient.
• C. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.
• D. None of the above examples indicate the need for chest thrusts.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of an emergency where a pregnant woman is choking, chest thrusts are performed to clear the airway obstruction. This technique is used instead of abdominal thrusts to avoid potential harm to the fetus. While chest thrusts are not as effective as abdominal thrusts in clearing obstructions, they are the preferred method in this specific situation. Choices A and B are incorrect as chest thrusts are not typically performed during CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation or when assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient. Choice D is incorrect as chest thrusts are indeed warranted when assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.

3. When percussing over the lungs of a 4-year-old child, the nurse hears bilateral loud, long, and low tones. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Palpate over the area for increased pain and tenderness.
• B. Ask the child to take shallow breaths and percuss over the area again.
• C. Refer the child to a specialist because of an increased amount of air in the lungs.
• D. Consider this finding as normal for a child this age and proceed with the examination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric patients, loud, long, and low tones heard when percussing over the lungs are normal findings. These percussion notes are characteristic of a child's lung due to its thin chest wall and increased air content. It is unnecessary to palpate for pain and tenderness, ask the child to take shallow breaths and repeat the percussion, or refer the child to a specialist. Therefore, the correct action is to consider these findings as normal for the child's age and continue with the examination.

4. The healthcare professional has collected the following information on a patient: palpated blood pressure"?180 mm Hg; auscultated blood pressure"?170/100 mm Hg; apical pulse"?60 beats per minute; radial pulse"?70 beats per minute. What is the patient's pulse pressure?

• A. 10
• B. 70
• C. 80
• D. 100

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pulse pressure is the numerical difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. In this case, the systolic blood pressure is 170 mm Hg, and the diastolic blood pressure is 100 mm Hg. Therefore, the pulse pressure is calculated as 170 - 100 = 70 mm Hg. Pulse pressure reflects the stroke volume, the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each beat. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings provided.

5. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

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