Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

2. Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?

• A. Tubercle
• B. Tuberosity
• C. Condyle
• D. Trochanter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.

3. On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse's initial response should be to:

• A. Give the client orientation materials and review the unit rules and regulations.
• B. Introduce him/her and accompany the client to the client's room.
• C. Take the client to the day room and introduce him/her to the other clients.
• D. Ask the nursing assistant to get the client's vital signs and complete the admission search.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anxiety is triggered by change that threatens the individual's sense of security. In response to anxiety in clients, the nurse should remain calm, minimize stimuli, and move the client to a calmer, more secure/safe setting. The correct initial response is to introduce the client and accompany them to their room. This approach helps the client feel oriented, safe, and supported. Giving orientation materials or reviewing rules and regulations may overwhelm the client further. Taking the client to the day room and introducing them to other clients could increase anxiety by exposing them to unfamiliar faces. Asking the nursing assistant to get vital signs and complete admission tasks can wait until the client feels more settled and secure in their environment.

4. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?

• A. Collect a stool sample
• B. Complete an abdominal assessment
• C. Administer an anti-nausea medication
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action when a client reports symptoms like nausea and constipation is to complete an abdominal assessment. Assessment is crucial as it involves the systematic collection of data to understand the client's condition. By assessing the abdomen, the nurse can gather essential information to make a nursing diagnosis and develop a care plan. Collecting a stool sample (Choice A) may be necessary but comes after the assessment to confirm findings. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice C) addresses symptoms but does not address the underlying cause without a thorough assessment. Notifying the physician (Choice D) should come after the assessment to provide a complete picture of the client's condition.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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