Nursing Elites

1. An examiner is using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient's eyes. The patient has astigmatism and is nearsighted. Which of these techniques by the examiner would indicate that the examination is being correctly performed?

• A. Rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus
• B. Using the large full circle of light when assessing pupils that are not dilated
• C. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers to compensate for astigmatism
• D. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial to visualize the external structures of the eye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To correctly perform an eye examination using an ophthalmoscope on a patient with astigmatism and nearsightedness, the examiner should rotate the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus. This adjustment helps compensate for nearsightedness or farsightedness but does not correct astigmatism. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers is not an appropriate technique for compensating for astigmatism. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial is primarily for visualizing external structures of the eye, not for addressing refractive errors. The large full circle of light is typically used when assessing dilated pupils, not for examining patients with astigmatism and nearsightedness. Therefore, the correct technique is rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus.

2. When checking for proper blood pressure cuff size, which guideline is correct?

• A. The standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes.
• B. The length of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• C. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• D. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 40% of the arm circumference.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When selecting the correct blood pressure cuff size, it is essential to ensure that the width of the rubber bladder equals 40% of the circumference of the person's arm. This ensures proper fitting and accurate readings. The length of the bladder should actually equal 80% of the arm circumference, not 80% of the width, making choices B and C incorrect. Choice A stating that the standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes is inaccurate, as using an incorrectly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate blood pressure readings.

3. The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed?

• A. UAP splint the patient's chest during coughing.
• B. UAP assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom.
• C. UAP help the patient to a bedside chair for meals.
• D. UAP lower the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to intervene in is when the UAP lowers the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees. This position can decrease ventilation in a patient with pneumonia, potentially worsening their condition. Choices B and C involve assisting the patient with activities of daily living and promoting mobility, which are appropriate for the patient's care. Choice A, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, can help the patient manage coughing effectively, which is also appropriate for a patient with pneumonia.

4. An experienced healthcare professional instructs a new colleague on caring for a patient with dyspnea due to a pulmonary fungal infection. Which action by the new colleague indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Listening to the patient's lung sounds several times during the shift
• B. Placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room
• C. Increasing the oxygen flow rate to maintain oxygen saturation above 90%
• D. Monitoring the patient's serology results to identify the specific infecting organism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room. Fungal infections are not transmitted from person to person, so isolation procedures like droplet precautions are unnecessary. Listening to the patient's lung sounds, increasing the oxygen flow rate, and monitoring serology results are all appropriate actions in caring for a patient with dyspnea caused by a pulmonary fungal infection.

5. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

Similar Questions