Nursing Elites

1. An examiner is using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient's eyes. The patient has astigmatism and is nearsighted. Which of these techniques by the examiner would indicate that the examination is being correctly performed?

• A. Rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus
• B. Using the large full circle of light when assessing pupils that are not dilated
• C. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers to compensate for astigmatism
• D. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial to visualize the external structures of the eye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To correctly perform an eye examination using an ophthalmoscope on a patient with astigmatism and nearsightedness, the examiner should rotate the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus. This adjustment helps compensate for nearsightedness or farsightedness but does not correct astigmatism. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers is not an appropriate technique for compensating for astigmatism. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial is primarily for visualizing external structures of the eye, not for addressing refractive errors. The large full circle of light is typically used when assessing dilated pupils, not for examining patients with astigmatism and nearsightedness. Therefore, the correct technique is rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus.

2. A patient has a goal of eating at least 50% of each meal. The patient refuses to eat, so a nurse force-feeds the patient in order for them to reach their goal of eating at least 50% of the meal. The nurse has committed __________ against this patient.

• A. assault
• B. battery
• C. physical neglect
• D. emotional neglect

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'battery.' Battery occurs when there is unwanted physical contact or force applied to a person without their consent. In this scenario, force-feeding the patient against their will constitutes battery as the nurse is physically interfering with the patient's body without permission. Assault involves the threat of physical harm, which is not present in the situation described. Physical neglect refers to the failure to provide basic care needs, which is not the case here. Emotional neglect involves the failure to address emotional needs, which is also not applicable in this context.

3. A 75-year-old man with a history of hypertension was recently changed to a new antihypertensive drug. He reports feeling dizzy at times. How would the nurse evaluate his blood pressure?

• A. Blood pressure and pulse should be recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.
• B. The patient should be directed to walk around the room and his blood pressure assessed after this activity.
• C. Blood pressure and pulse are assessed at the beginning and at the end of the examination.
• D. Blood pressure is taken on the right arm and then 5 minutes later on the left arm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orthostatic vital signs should be taken when the person is hypertensive or is taking antihypertensive medications, when the person reports fainting or syncope, or when volume depletion is suspected. The blood pressure and pulse readings are recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

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