Nursing Elites

1. The nursing diagnosis is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and pressure secondary to pain and presence of a cast. Which of the following desired outcomes should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Client will be able to turn self by day 3
• B. Skin will remain intact and without redness during hospital stay
• C. Client will state pain relieved within 30 minutes after medication
• D. Pressure will be prevented by repositioning client every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct desired outcome for a nursing diagnosis of 'Risk for impaired skin integrity' is to ensure that the skin remains intact and without redness during the hospital stay. This outcome directly addresses the risk identified in the diagnosis. Option A focuses on addressing immobility, which is not the priority for this diagnosis. Option C deals with pain relief, which is a separate concern. Option D is an intervention involving pressure prevention through repositioning, rather than an outcome related to skin integrity.

2. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

3. Which of the following scenarios provides an example of a healthcare professional overcoming a barrier to communication?

• A. A healthcare professional uses a visual aid to explain how to conduct a fingerstick glucose test to a patient with visual impairment.
• B. A healthcare professional writes down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired.
• C. A healthcare professional raises their voice when speaking to a patient who does not speak English.
• D. A healthcare professional uses medical jargon while conversing with a minor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Overcoming barriers to communication in healthcare involves utilizing methods of communication that are accessible and understandable to the recipient. In the scenario provided, writing down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired is an effective way to ensure clear communication and overcome the obstacle of hearing impairment. This method allows the patient to visually comprehend the information provided. Choice A is incorrect because using a visual aid for a visually impaired patient, not a hearing-impaired patient, would be more appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as raising one's voice does not address the language barrier effectively and may not enhance understanding. Choice D is incorrect as using complex medical terms with a minor may lead to confusion and hinder effective communication.

4. Should standard precautions be used when providing post mortem care to a patient who has died from a massive heart attack and had no other diseases, illnesses, or infections?

• A. Yes, because the patient must be treated with respect
• B. Yes, you still must use standard precautions
• C. No, because the patient had no infections
• D. No, because this is not respectful

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yes, you must still use standard precautions when providing post mortem care, regardless of the patient's medical history. Standard precautions are essential to prevent the transmission of potential infectious agents and protect both the healthcare provider and others from exposure. Even if the patient did not have known infections, it is crucial to maintain a safe environment and uphold professional standards of care. Choice A is incorrect as using standard precautions is primarily for infection control rather than solely for respect. Choices C and D are incorrect as the absence of infections or the notion of respect does not negate the need for standard precautions in post mortem care.

5. Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?

• A. Human immunodeficiency virus
• B. Clostridium difficile enterocolitis
• C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
• D. Measles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.

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