Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with acromegaly, which assessment finding will the nurse expect to find?

• A. Sternal deformity and hyperextensible joints
• B. Growth retardation and a delayed onset of puberty
• C. Overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet
• D. Increased height and weight and delayed sexual development

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood after normal body growth completion. This hormonal excess leads to overgrowth of bones in the face, head, hands, and feet; however, there is no significant change in height. Stating sternal deformity and hyperextensible joints is incorrect as they are characteristic findings of Marfan syndrome. Growth retardation and delayed onset of puberty are not typical of acromegaly but are seen in hypopituitary dwarfism. Increased height, weight, and delayed sexual development are features of gigantism, not acromegaly. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in a patient with acromegaly would be overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

2. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:

• A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
• B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
• C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
• D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.

3. Which of the following puts the layers of skin in the correct order from right to left?

• A. Dermis, epidermis, hypodermis
• B. Hypodermis, epidermis, dermis
• C. Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct order of the layers of skin from outermost to innermost is the epidermis, dermis, and then the hypodermis. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, followed by the dermis, which is the middle layer containing connective tissue, hair follicles, and sweat glands. The hypodermis, also known as the subcutaneous tissue, lies beneath the dermis and consists of fat and connective tissue. Choice A is incorrect as it lists the layers in the reverse order. Choice B is incorrect as it reverses the order of the layers. Choice D is incorrect as there is a correct answer among the choices.

4. The nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment. The correct action by the nurse is reflected by which statement?

• A. Performs the examination from both sides of the bed.
• B. Examines tender or painful areas last to help relieve the patient's anxiety.
• C. Follows a flexible examination sequence, considering the patient's age and condition.
• D. Organizes the assessment to ensure that the patient does not change positions too often.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should organize the assessment to minimize the patient's need to change positions frequently, ensuring efficiency and comfort. It is essential to perform the examination from both sides of the bed to facilitate a comprehensive assessment. Examining tender or painful areas last can help reduce patient discomfort and anxiety. The examination sequence should be flexible, taking into account the patient's age, condition, and specific needs. This approach allows for a tailored and patient-centered assessment, optimizing the quality of care provided.

5. Specific gravity in urinalysis:

• A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
• B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
• C. can only be measured using a refractometer
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.

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