NCLEX-RN
Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions
1. All of the following factors may contribute to client falls EXCEPT:
- A. Contact dermatitis
- B. Urinary frequency
- C. Decreased visual acuity
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Client falls can result from various factors, both intrinsic and extrinsic. Intrinsic factors include health conditions like urinary frequency, which increases the need for bathroom visits, decreased visual acuity, and confusion. These factors can directly contribute to an increased risk of falls. However, contact dermatitis does not directly lead to falls. Contact dermatitis is a skin condition caused by contact with irritants or allergens and does not inherently predispose individuals to falling. Therefore, among the given options, contact dermatitis is the only factor that is not directly associated with an increased risk of falls.
2. Cheryl M. has a serious swallowing disorder. She has asked you for a glass of water. The doctor has ordered honey thickness liquids for her. Water is not a honey thickness liquid. It is much thinner. What should you do?
- A. Tell the resident that she cannot have water.
- B. Give her applesauce instead of the water.
- C. Tell Cheryl that she is NPO until midnight.
- D. Thicken the water and give it to her.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: You can give Cheryl the water that she has requested; however, since water is not a honey-thick liquid as ordered by the doctor, you must thicken it with a commercial thickener before giving it to her. This will ensure that the water is at the appropriate consistency for her swallowing disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Telling the resident she cannot have water is not the best course of action without attempting to modify it first. B) Giving her applesauce instead of water does not address the specific request for water. C) Placing Cheryl on NPO status until midnight is unnecessary and does not address her immediate request for water.
3. A client has become combative and is attempting to pull out his IV and take off his surgical dressings. The nurse receives an order to apply wrist restraints. Which action of the nurse signifies that restraints are being used safely?
- A. The nurse ties the restraints in a square knot to prevent the client from untying them
- B. The restraints are attached to a movable portion of the bed
- C. The padded side of the restraint is applied next to the skin of the wrist
- D. The nurse assesses the client's distal circulation every 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Restraint use must prioritize the safety of the client. When applying restraints around the wrists, the padded side should be placed against the skin to help prevent skin breakdown. Additionally, restraints should be secured in quick-release knots to ensure they can be removed rapidly in case of an emergency. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be tied in a way that could prevent quick removal. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should not be attached to a movable part of the bed to avoid unintentional movement. Choice D is incorrect as assessing distal circulation is important but is not directly related to the safe application of restraints.
4. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?
- A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
- B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
- C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
- D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.
5. When is the best time for the nurse to attempt to elicit the Moro reflex during an infant examination?
- A. When the infant is sleeping
- B. At the end of the examination
- C. Before auscultation of the thorax
- D. At about the middle of the examination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is best elicited at the end of the examination because it can cause the infant to cry. This reflex is triggered by a sudden change in position or loud noise, and it involves the infant's arms extending and then coming back together as if embracing. By eliciting this reflex at the end of the examination, the nurse can observe the infant's response and ensure that the examination is completed without unnecessary distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Moro reflex is typically elicited at the end of the examination to avoid disrupting the assessment process and causing unnecessary discomfort to the infant.
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