Nursing Elites

1. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

2. A 2-year-old child has been brought to the clinic for a well-child checkup. What is the best way for the nurse to begin the assessment?

• A. Ask the parent to place the child on the examining table.
• B. Have the parent remove all of the child's clothing before the examination.
• C. Allow the child to keep a security object such as a toy or blanket during the examination.
• D. Initially focus the interactions on the child, essentially ignoring the parent until the child's trust has been obtained.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best place to examine the toddler is on the parent's lap. Toddlers understand symbols; therefore, a security object is helpful. Initially, the focus is more on the parent, which allows the child to adjust gradually and to become familiar with you. A 2-year-old child does not like to take off his or her clothes. Therefore, ask the parent to undress one body part at a time.

3. When educating a client about their new prescription for warfarin, what should the nurse advise?

• A. To have his white blood cell count tested once a month
• B. To avoid any activities that could lead to injury
• C. To avoid eating leafy green vegetables
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid any activities that could lead to injury when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that decreases blood clotting, increasing the risk of bleeding. Engaging in activities that may result in injury can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, which can be serious. While monitoring white blood cell count is not specifically related to warfarin therapy, avoiding leafy green vegetables is important due to their vitamin K content, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Therefore, the client should be educated to avoid activities that could cause injury to prevent potential bleeding complications.

4. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

5. For a healthcare worker under normal conditions with unsoiled hands, effective hand hygiene between patients requires which of the following?

• A. At least a 15-second scrub with plain soap and water
• B. At least a 23-minute scrub with an antimicrobial soap
• C. Use of an alcohol-based antiseptic hand-rub
• D. Wearing a mask when scrubbing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective hand hygiene between patients for a healthcare worker with unsoiled hands involves using an alcohol-based antiseptic hand rub. This method is sufficient for cleaning hands that are not visibly soiled. The use of an antimicrobial soap or a prolonged scrubbing time is unnecessary and not recommended in this scenario. Wearing a mask is not required for routine hand hygiene and does not contribute to effective hand cleaning.

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