the hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift which of these clients would the nurse put first on the list to be dischar
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank

1. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

2. A client with an enlarged prostate is having trouble starting his flow of urine when using the bathroom. Another name for this condition is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urinary hesitancy occurs when a client has difficulty starting a flow of urine while using the bathroom. Hesitancy may be due to physiological factors, such as obstruction from an enlarged prostate, or due to psychological factors, such as anxiety or embarrassment. Oliguria refers to decreased urine output, retention is the inability to empty the bladder fully, and urgency is the sudden and strong need to urinate.

3. During an assessment, a nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?"? Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is assessing cognition in this scenario. Cognition involves evaluating a patient's judgment and decision-making abilities. By asking the patient what they would do in a specific situation, the nurse aims to determine the patient's cognitive function. A correct response indicating intact cognition would involve a decision like 'Call my doctor.' If the patient suggests inappropriate actions like 'I would stop eating' or 'I would just wait and see what happened,' it would suggest impaired judgment. The other options, behavior, affect and mood, and perceptual disturbances, refer to different aspects of the mental status examination and are not directly assessed through this question.

4. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: At the age of 10, children are in the concrete operations stage according to Piaget. They are capable of mature thought when allowed to manipulate and organize objects. This means they can think logically, organize facts, and understand cause-and-effect relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While simple associations of ideas may occur, the key cognitive ability at this stage is the capacity for logical thought and organization of information. Interpretation of events from their own perspective is more characteristic of younger children, and conclusions based on previous experiences are more aligned with older children or adults.

5. When auscultating the blood pressure of a 25-year-old patient, the nurse notices that the phase I Korotkoff sounds begin at 200 mm Hg. At 100 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds muffle. At 92 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds disappear. How should the nurse record this patient's blood pressure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating blood pressure, it is crucial to note the points at which Korotkoff sounds change. In adults, the last audible sound indicates the diastolic pressure. In this case, the Korotkoff sounds muffle at 100 mm Hg and disappear at 92 mm Hg. Therefore, the blood pressure should be recorded as systolic/diastolic, which is 200/92. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct points where the Korotkoff sounds change during blood pressure measurement.

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