the hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift which of these clients would the nurse put first on the list to be dischar

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank

1. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

2. When are manual hematocrits done?

A. to monitor anemia
B. by using a microhematocrit tube.
C. to measure the percentage of plasma to cells.
D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Manual hematocrits are performed to monitor anemia, which involves measuring the percentage of red blood cells in the blood. The process involves collecting blood in a microhematocrit tube, then centrifuging it to separate the plasma from the cells. By measuring the ratio of plasma to cells, healthcare providers can assess the patient's hematocrit level. Therefore, all the provided options are correct as they collectively describe the purpose and procedure of manual hematocrits.

3. What is the initial step to take when a patient passes out at the front desk?

A. Call 911.
B. Initiate CPR.
C. Shake the patient and ask if they are okay.
D. Check for a pulse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial step when a patient passes out at the front desk is to shake the patient gently and ask if they are okay. This step aims to assess the patient's level of responsiveness. Checking for a pulse or initiating CPR should only be done if the patient does not respond to being shaken. Calling 911 can be the next step after assessing the patient's immediate condition and providing necessary assistance.

4. The Sims' position is MOST similar to the ________ position.

A. prone
B. lateral
C. supine
D. Fowler's

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'lateral.' The Sims' position is characterized by the patient lying on their side with the upper knee flexed and the upper arm positioned in front of the body. This is similar to the lateral position where the patient is also lying on their side. The prone position (choice A) is when the patient lies face down, the supine position (choice C) is when the patient lies face up, and Fowler's position (choice D) is a seated position with the head of the bed elevated at a 45-90 degree angle. Therefore, the lateral position is the most similar to the Sims' position as both involve the patient lying on their side.

5. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?

A. The client's IV is infiltrated
B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.