Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

2. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.

3. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client’s laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?

• A. Hyperphosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are classic manifestations of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a vital role in muscle function and cardiac conduction, so a deficiency can lead to these symptoms. Checking the client’s laboratory values for potassium levels will help confirm the presence of hypokalemia.

4. What is the main purpose of the working phase of the nurse-patient relationship?

• A. Establish a formal or informal contract that addresses the patient's problems.
• B. Implement nursing interventions that are designed to achieve expected patient outcomes.
• C. Develop rapport and trust so the patient feels supported, and the initial plan can be identified.
• D. Clearly identify the role of the nurse and establish the parameters of the professional relationship.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of the working phase in the nurse-patient relationship is to implement nursing interventions that are specifically tailored to achieve the expected patient outcomes. During this phase, the nurse actively works with the patient to put the care plan into action and make progress towards reaching the desired health goals. It involves the application of therapeutic communication, problem-solving, and interventions to address the patient's needs. Establishing rapport and trust is typically done in the orientation phase, while defining roles and boundaries usually occurs in the introductory phase of the relationship. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they describe activities more aligned with other phases of the nurse-patient relationship, such as orientation and introductory phases.

5. An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following?

• A. Blood clots
• B. Ecchymotic areas
• C. Jaundice
• D. Infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A coagulation time of 20 minutes is prolonged, suggesting a potential bleeding disorder. Ecchymotic areas, which are areas of bruising, are common signs of abnormal bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should observe the client for ecchymotic areas to monitor for potential bleeding issues. Blood clots are not typically associated with prolonged coagulation time but rather with excessive clotting. Jaundice is related to liver dysfunction, and infection is not directly linked to coagulation time.

Similar Questions