Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Oliguria.
• B. Kussmaul respirations.
• C. Fruity odor on the breath.
• D. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (B) are a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and are expected in this condition. While oliguria (A), fruity odor on the breath (C), and elevated blood glucose level (D) are also signs of DKA, Kussmaul respirations are more specific and critical to the condition, indicating severe metabolic acidosis.

3. After hemodialysis, a client with a history of chronic renal failure has just returned to the unit. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?

• A. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
• B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
• C. Monitor the client's weight.
• D. Check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial assessment for the nurse to make after hemodialysis in a client with chronic renal failure is to check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill (D). This assessment is essential to ensure the patency of the fistula and adequate blood flow. Auscultating lung sounds (A), assessing blood pressure (B), and monitoring weight (C) are important assessments but are secondary to evaluating the fistula. Checking the fistula is vital as it directly impacts the effectiveness of the client's dialysis treatment and the patency of the vascular access, ensuring successful dialysis sessions.

4. A client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse about drinking juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Orange juice has vitamin C, which deters bacterial growth.
• B. Apple juice is the most useful in acidifying the urine.
• C. Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.
• D. Grapefruit juice increases the absorption of most antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cranberry juice is known for its ability to prevent urinary tract infections by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to the cells within the bladder. This property helps in maintaining urinary tract health and preventing recurrent UTIs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while vitamin C in orange juice may have some benefits, it is not specifically known for deterring bacterial growth in the urinary tract. Apple juice does not significantly impact urine acidity, and grapefruit juice does not enhance antibiotic absorption, making them less effective choices for preventing UTIs compared to cranberry juice.

5. A healthcare professional stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later, the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the healthcare professional for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

• A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the healthcare professional could lose the case.
• B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the healthcare professional's license is likely to be revoked.
• C. There will be no judgment against the healthcare professional, whose actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
• D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) can be proved.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith and offer reasonable assistance in emergencies. This law shields them from malpractice claims, even if the outcome for the client is unfavorable. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is likely to be protected from judgment under the Good Samaritan Act. Choice A is incorrect because the situation does not involve the Patient's Bill of Rights, but rather the Good Samaritan Act. Choice B is incorrect as the license revocation is not a typical outcome in Good Samaritan cases. Choice D is incorrect as the Good Samaritan Act provides immunity from liability in such emergency situations.

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