Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

2. Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

• A. Superficial veins are more easily found in the feet and ankles.
• B. A decreased flow rate could lead to thrombosis formation.
• C. It is more challenging to move a cannulated extremity when using the leg or foot.
• D. Veins in the feet and ankles are located deep, making the procedure more painful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.

3. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:

• A. Asystole
• B. Bigeminy
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.

4. The healthcare professional is obtaining a lie-sit-stand blood pressure reading on a client. Which action is most important for the healthcare professional to implement?

• A. Stay with the client while the client is standing.
• B. Record the findings on the graphic sheet in the chart.
• C. Keep the blood pressure cuff on the same arm.
• D. Record changes in the client's pulse rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In obtaining a lie-sit-stand blood pressure reading, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to stay with the client while the client is standing. This action is the most important as it ensures client safety during the procedure. Recording findings, keeping the blood pressure cuff on the same arm, and monitoring pulse rate are all important tasks, but staying with the client while standing takes priority to prevent any potential falls or adverse events. By staying with the client, the healthcare professional can promptly address any signs of dizziness or instability, ensuring a safe environment for the client throughout the procedure.

5. When faced with caring for a close friend in a professional setting, which action should the staff member take first?

• A. Notify the friend that all medical information will be kept confidential.
• B. Explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment.
• C. Approach the client and ask if the assignment is uncomfortable.
• D. Accept the assignment but protect the client's confidentiality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When faced with caring for a close friend in a professional setting, the staff member should first explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment. This is important to maintain professional boundaries, prevent conflicts of interest, and ensure that the care provided is unbiased and without compromising the friend's confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because the priority should be on professional boundaries rather than informing the friend about confidentiality. Choice C is not appropriate as it puts the burden on the client to address any discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as accepting the assignment without addressing the potential conflict of interest could lead to compromised care.

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