when performing cpr at what rate should chest compressions be applied
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions

1. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

2. Which type of shock is related to low blood volume?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hemorrhagic shock, also known as hypovolemic shock, is directly related to low blood volume due to significant blood loss. In hemorrhagic shock, the body's circulating blood volume is reduced, leading to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs. Psychogenic shock is caused by emotional distress, not blood volume changes. Cardiogenic shock results from heart failure, not low blood volume. Anaphylactic shock is due to a severe allergic reaction, not a reduction in blood volume.

3. The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a patient with migraine headaches has a seizure, it is important to assess their vital signs to monitor their condition. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it falls within their scope of practice. Documenting the seizure and performing neurologic checks require a higher level of training and should be done by a nurse or healthcare provider. Restraint should never be used as a first-line intervention after a seizure unless there is an immediate threat to the patient's safety, and it should be done following proper protocols and with appropriate training.

4. When assessing a pulse, what should be noted?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a pulse, it is important to note the rate (number of beats per minute), quality (regular or irregular), and fullness (thread and weak or full and bounding). These aspects provide crucial information about the patient's cardiovascular status. Regularity, as mentioned in option D, is not typically assessed during a pulse check and is not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Choice A is too limited as it overlooks important aspects beyond just the rate. Choice B improves by adding quality but still lacks the fullness aspect. Choice C is the most comprehensive and accurate as it includes all three essential aspects for a thorough pulse assessment.

5. Which of the following is a negative outcome associated with impaired mobility?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with impaired mobility may develop changes in body systems that put them at risk of further illness or injury. One negative outcome associated with impaired mobility is orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops significantly when moving from a sitting or lying position to a standing position. This drop in blood pressure can lead to symptoms such as dizziness or fainting. This occurs because blood circulates more slowly or pools in the distal extremities due to impaired mobility. Choice A is incorrect because increased calcium absorption is not a typical negative outcome associated with impaired mobility. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in mucus in the bronchi and lungs is not a common negative outcome of impaired mobility. Choice D is incorrect because thickening of vessel walls in the circulatory system is not directly associated with impaired mobility.

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