Nursing Elites

1. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

2. A 60-year-old patient has been treated for pneumonia for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seen today in the clinic for an unexplained weight loss of 10 pounds over the last 6 weeks. Which is an appropriate rationale for this patient's weight loss?

• A. Chronic diseases such as hypertension do not usually cause weight loss.
• B. Weight loss is more likely due to underlying medical conditions than unhealthy eating habits.
• C. Unexplained weight loss often accompanies short-term illnesses.
• D. Weight loss is not typically caused by mental health dysfunctions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Unexplained weight loss in a patient with pneumonia could indicate an underlying short-term illness or a chronic condition like endocrine disease, malignancy, depression, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with weight loss; it usually leads to weight gain due to fluid retention. Unhealthy eating habits are less likely to explain significant unexplained weight loss over a short period. Mental health dysfunctions can affect appetite but are not typically primary causes of significant unexplained weight loss.

3. When performing a physical examination, safety must be considered to protect the examiner and the patient against the spread of infection. Which of these statements describes the most appropriate action the nurse would take when performing a physical examination?

• A. Washing one's hands after removing gloves is necessary, even if the gloves are still intact
• B. Hands are washed before and after every physical patient encounter
• C. Hands are washed before the examination of each body system to prevent the spread of bacteria from one part of the body to another
• D. Gloves are worn throughout the entire examination to demonstrate concern regarding the spread of infectious diseases

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when performing a physical examination is to wash their hands before and after every physical patient encounter. This practice helps prevent the spread of infection. Hands should also be washed after contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions, and after contact with any equipment contaminated with body fluids. It is crucial to wash hands after removing gloves, even if the gloves appear intact. Choice A is incorrect because washing hands after removing gloves is necessary to ensure thorough hygiene. Choice C is incorrect because hands should be washed before and after every patient encounter, not just before examining each body system. Choice D is incorrect because gloves should be worn when there is potential contact with body fluids, but they do not need to be worn throughout the entire examination.

4. In a patient with acromegaly, which assessment finding will the nurse expect to find?

• A. Sternal deformity and hyperextensible joints
• B. Growth retardation and a delayed onset of puberty
• C. Overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet
• D. Increased height and weight and delayed sexual development

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood after normal body growth completion. This hormonal excess leads to overgrowth of bones in the face, head, hands, and feet; however, there is no significant change in height. Stating sternal deformity and hyperextensible joints is incorrect as they are characteristic findings of Marfan syndrome. Growth retardation and delayed onset of puberty are not typical of acromegaly but are seen in hypopituitary dwarfism. Increased height, weight, and delayed sexual development are features of gigantism, not acromegaly. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in a patient with acromegaly would be overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

5. To properly read a meniscus,

• A. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level
• B. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the top of the curve of the liquid level where the liquid adheres to the walls of the container.
• C. hold the measuring device at table level and, looking down into the measuring device, read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level.
• D. hold the measuring device at table level and, looking down into the measuring device, read the top of the curve of the liquid level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To properly read a meniscus, it is essential to hold the measuring device at eye level to avoid parallax error. Reading the bottom of the curve of the liquid level is correct because the meniscus is the concave or convex curve at the liquid's surface. Choice B is incorrect because reading the top of the curve where the liquid adheres to the walls of the container can lead to inaccurate measurements. Choices C and D are incorrect as they suggest holding the device at table level, which can introduce parallax error and result in an incorrect reading.

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