Nursing Elites

1. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

2. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:

• A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
• B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
• C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
• D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.

3. What is the most effective step in hand washing?

• A. Using friction to remove potential pathogens.
• B. Using hospital-grade soap.
• C. Moisturizing the hands after washing to prevent cracking.
• D. Washing hands with soap for at least 15 seconds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective step in hand washing is using friction to remove potential pathogens. While using soap, moisturizing hands, and washing for a sufficient duration are important aspects of hand hygiene, the mechanical action of rubbing hands together with friction is crucial in dislodging and removing dirt, debris, and potential pathogens. Hospital-grade soap may be beneficial, but the physical act of friction is key to effective hand washing. Moisturizing after washing is important for skin health but not the most effective step in the hand washing process. Simply washing hands for a specific duration, such as 15 seconds, without proper friction may not effectively remove contaminants. Therefore, using friction for thorough cleaning is the most crucial step in hand washing.

4. During the implementation phase of the nursing process when working with a hospitalized adult, which of the following actions would the nurse take?

• A. Formulate a nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange
• B. Record in the medical record the distance a client ambulates in the hall
• C. Write individualized nursing orders in the care plan
• D. Compare client responses to the desired outcomes for pain relief

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the implementation phase of the nursing process, the nurse is responsible for carrying out or delegating nursing interventions and documenting nursing activities and client responses in the medical records. Option A involves diagnosing, which is part of the nursing process's earlier phases. Option C pertains to planning, which precedes implementation. Option D relates to evaluation, which comes after the implementation phase.

5. A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Astigmatism
• D. Presbyopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.

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