Nursing Elites

1. What does an individual who believes in the magicoreligious theory of illness and disease think is the cause of illness?

• A. Germs and viruses
• B. Supernatural forces
• C. Eating imbalanced (hot/cold) foods
• D. Imbalance within his or her spiritual nature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals who adhere to the magicoreligious theory of illness and disease attribute the cause of illness to supernatural forces. In this perspective, the world is perceived as governed by supernatural forces that influence the well-being of individuals. The belief is that these forces can bring about both good and evil outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Germs and viruses are associated with the biomedical theory of illness. Eating imbalanced hot or cold foods is linked to the yin/yang naturalist theory. Imbalance within one's spiritual nature is not a recognized cause of illness in any of the established theories of illness.

2. The client starting an exercise program will progress to walking a 20-minute mile in one month.

• A. Client will walk quickly three times a day
• B. Client will be able to walk a mile
• C. Client will have no alteration in breathing during the walk
• D. Client will progress to walking a 20-minute mile in one month

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Outcome statements must be written in behavioral terms and identify specific, measurable client behaviors. They are stated in terms of the client with an action verb that, under identified conditions, will achieve the desired behavior. Choice A lacks specificity and does not mention a target time or goal. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific target for improvement. Choice C focuses on a negative outcome (no alteration) rather than a positive goal. The correct answer, Choice D, is specific, measurable, and time-bound, making it a suitable outcome statement for a client starting an exercise program.

3. When examining an older adult, which technique should the nurse use?

• A. Minimize touching the patient as much as possible.
• B. Attempt to perform the entire physical examination during one visit.
• C. Speak loudly and slowly due to potential hearing deficits in aging adults.
• D. Arrange the sequence of the examination to allow as few position changes as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an older adult, it is crucial to arrange the sequence of the examination to minimize position changes. This helps prevent discomfort and fatigue for the older adult, who may have mobility issues. Option A is incorrect because physical touch is essential when examining older adults, as their other senses may be diminished. Option B is incorrect as it is better to break the examination into multiple visits to ensure thoroughness and comfort. Option C is incorrect because while some older adults may have hearing deficits, it is not appropriate to assume this for all individuals without proper assessment.

4. The nurse is preparing to examine a 6-year-old child. Which action is most appropriate?

• A. The child is asked to undress from the waist up.
• B. The head is examined before the thorax, abdomen, and genitalia.
• C. The nurse should keep in mind that a child at this age will have a sense of modesty.
• D. Talking about the equipment being used is avoided to prevent increasing the child's anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When examining a 6-year-old child, it is important to consider their sense of modesty. The child should undress themselves, leaving underpants on and using a gown or drape to maintain privacy. Additionally, a school-age child like a 6-year-old is curious about how equipment works, so it is beneficial to explain the purpose and function of the tools being used. The examination sequence should typically progress from the child's head to the toes to ensure a thorough assessment. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the appropriate approach to examining a 6-year-old child.

5. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?

• A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
• B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
• C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
• D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.

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