Nursing Elites

1. A patient is asked to abduct her arms. Which of the following accurately describes her arm movement?

• A. She moves her arms away from her trunk
• B. She moves her arms toward her trunk
• C. She rotates her arms at the wrists while holding them away from her body
• D. She crosses her arms over her abdomen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abduction refers to moving a body part away from the midline of the body. In this case, when the patient abducts her arms, she is moving them away from her trunk. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B describes adduction, which is the movement of a body part toward the midline. Choice C describes wrist rotation, not arm abduction. Choice D describes crossing the arms over the abdomen, which is not the movement associated with abduction.

2. A client has become combative and is attempting to pull out his IV and take off his surgical dressings. The nurse receives an order to apply wrist restraints. Which action of the nurse signifies that restraints are being used safely?

• A. The nurse ties the restraints in a square knot to prevent the client from untying them
• B. The restraints are attached to a movable portion of the bed
• C. The padded side of the restraint is applied next to the skin of the wrist
• D. The nurse assesses the client's distal circulation every 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraint use must prioritize the safety of the client. When applying restraints around the wrists, the padded side should be placed against the skin to help prevent skin breakdown. Additionally, restraints should be secured in quick-release knots to ensure they can be removed rapidly in case of an emergency. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be tied in a way that could prevent quick removal. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should not be attached to a movable part of the bed to avoid unintentional movement. Choice D is incorrect as assessing distal circulation is important but is not directly related to the safe application of restraints.

3. A patient's body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 97.6 degrees F in the morning to 99 degrees F in the evening. The patient is worried that this change in temperature may indicate the beginning of a fever. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon?

• A. The patient definitely has a fever in the evening and should be seen by a doctor.
• B. The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm.
• C. The patient is more than likely taking their temperature incorrectly.
• D. The patient is experiencing changes related to fluctuating daily hormones.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm. Diurnal rhythm is the phenomenon of body temperature fluctuating depending on the time of day. Temperatures taken in the morning are typically lower than those taken throughout the rest of the day. Choice A is incorrect because a single elevated temperature reading in the evening does not definitively indicate a fever. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication of incorrect temperature measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the temperature changes are not related to monthly hormones but rather to the body's natural daily rhythm.

4. When performing a physical assessment, what technique should the nurse always perform first?

• A. Palpation
• B. Inspection
• C. Percussion
• D. Auscultation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a physical assessment, the nurse should always begin with inspection. The sequence of techniques for physical examination is inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. These skills are performed in a specific order, except for the abdominal assessment where auscultation precedes palpation and percussion. Inspection allows the nurse to observe and gather initial information without direct contact. It is a crucial step that provides valuable insights before proceeding to palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Therefore, choice B, 'Inspection,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they should follow inspection in the sequence of a comprehensive physical assessment.

5. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

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