NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. A patient is asked to abduct her arms. Which of the following accurately describes her arm movement?
- A. She moves her arms away from her trunk
- B. She moves her arms toward her trunk
- C. She rotates her arms at the wrists while holding them away from her body
- D. She crosses her arms over her abdomen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abduction refers to moving a body part away from the midline of the body. In this case, when the patient abducts her arms, she is moving them away from her trunk. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B describes adduction, which is the movement of a body part toward the midline. Choice C describes wrist rotation, not arm abduction. Choice D describes crossing the arms over the abdomen, which is not the movement associated with abduction.
2. When considering the concepts related to blood pressure, which statement best describes the concept of mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
- A. MAP is the pressure of the arterial pulse.
- B. MAP reflects the stroke volume of the heart.
- C. MAP is the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.
- D. MAP is an average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures and reflects tissue perfusion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is the pressure that forces blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle. It is not the pressure of the arterial pulse (Choice A), nor does it directly reflect the stroke volume of the heart (Choice B). While MAP involves systolic and diastolic pressures, it is not simply an average of these two values as diastole lasts longer. Instead, MAP is closer to diastolic pressure plus one third of the pulse pressure. The best description of MAP is that it represents the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.
3. When educating a client about their new prescription for warfarin, what should the nurse advise?
- A. To have his white blood cell count tested once a month
- B. To avoid any activities that could lead to injury
- C. To avoid eating leafy green vegetables
- D. Both A and B
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid any activities that could lead to injury when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that decreases blood clotting, increasing the risk of bleeding. Engaging in activities that may result in injury can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, which can be serious. While monitoring white blood cell count is not specifically related to warfarin therapy, avoiding leafy green vegetables is important due to their vitamin K content, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Therefore, the client should be educated to avoid activities that could cause injury to prevent potential bleeding complications.
4. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?
- A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
- B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
- C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C)
- D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.
5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?
- A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
- B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
- C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
- D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.
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