Nursing Elites

1. In which of the following ways can a healthcare provider promote the sense of taste for an older adult?

• A. Mixing foods together on the dinner tray
• B. Avoiding cologne, air fresheners, or room deodorizers
• C. Encouraging the client to chew food thoroughly
• D. Discouraging the use of salt or seasonings with prepared food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As individuals age, their sense of taste may diminish, impacting the enjoyment of eating. One effective way for a healthcare provider to promote the sense of taste for an older adult is by encouraging them to chew food thoroughly. Thorough chewing increases the contact of food with the taste buds, enhancing the chances of experiencing the flavors. Mixing foods together on the dinner tray may not necessarily enhance taste perception. Avoiding strong scents like cologne, air fresheners, or room deodorizers is more related to olfactory senses rather than taste. Discouraging the use of salt or seasonings can further diminish the taste experience for older adults who may already have reduced taste sensitivity.

2. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true?

• A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease
• B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours
• C. The specimen is positive for bacteria
• D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Storing the specimen in an area protected from light helps maintain the integrity of the bilirubin levels for accurate testing. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of bilirubin in urine does not necessarily indicate kidney disease. Choice B is incorrect as the exposure to light, not room temperature, affects bilirubin levels. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of bilirubin does not indicate the presence of bacteria in the specimen.

3. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a diagnosis of Risk for Activity Intolerance?

• A. Perform nursing activities throughout the entire shift
• B. Assess for signs of increased muscle tone
• C. Minimize environmental noise
• D. Teach clients to perform the Valsalva maneuver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client diagnosed with Risk for Activity Intolerance is to minimize environmental noise. Environmental noise can increase the energy demand on the client as they try to manage their responses to stimuli. By reducing excess noise, the nurse helps promote rest and conserves the client's energy, which is crucial in managing activity intolerance. Choice A is incorrect because increasing nursing activities may exacerbate the client's intolerance to activity. Choice B is incorrect as assessing for signs of increased muscle tone does not directly address the issue of activity intolerance. Choice D is incorrect as teaching the Valsalva maneuver is not relevant to managing activity intolerance in this scenario.

4. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

5. When considering the concepts related to blood pressure, which statement best describes the concept of mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

• A. MAP is the pressure of the arterial pulse.
• B. MAP reflects the stroke volume of the heart.
• C. MAP is the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.
• D. MAP is an average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures and reflects tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is the pressure that forces blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle. It is not the pressure of the arterial pulse (Choice A), nor does it directly reflect the stroke volume of the heart (Choice B). While MAP involves systolic and diastolic pressures, it is not simply an average of these two values as diastole lasts longer. Instead, MAP is closer to diastolic pressure plus one third of the pulse pressure. The best description of MAP is that it represents the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.

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