Nursing Elites

1. In which of the following ways can a healthcare provider promote the sense of taste for an older adult?

• A. Mixing foods together on the dinner tray
• B. Avoiding cologne, air fresheners, or room deodorizers
• C. Encouraging the client to chew food thoroughly
• D. Discouraging the use of salt or seasonings with prepared food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As individuals age, their sense of taste may diminish, impacting the enjoyment of eating. One effective way for a healthcare provider to promote the sense of taste for an older adult is by encouraging them to chew food thoroughly. Thorough chewing increases the contact of food with the taste buds, enhancing the chances of experiencing the flavors. Mixing foods together on the dinner tray may not necessarily enhance taste perception. Avoiding strong scents like cologne, air fresheners, or room deodorizers is more related to olfactory senses rather than taste. Discouraging the use of salt or seasonings can further diminish the taste experience for older adults who may already have reduced taste sensitivity.

2. What does preload refer to?

• A. The volume of blood entering the left side of the heart
• B. The volume of blood entering the right side of the heart
• C. The pressure in the venous system that the heart must overcome to pump the blood
• D. The pressure in the arterial system that the heart must overcome to pump the blood

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preload refers to the volume of blood that enters the right side of the heart. This volume stretches the fibers in the heart before contraction. Preload is an essential factor in determining the force of ventricular contraction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because preload is specifically related to the volume of blood entering the right side of the heart. Choices C and D are incorrect as they refer to afterload, which is the pressure that the heart must overcome to pump blood out of the ventricles into the systemic or pulmonary circulation.

3. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A patient with pneumonia who has crackles in the right lung base
• B. A patient with possible lung cancer who has just returned after bronchoscopy
• C. A patient with hemoptysis and a 16-mm induration with tuberculin skin testing
• D. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pulmonary function testing (PFT) that indicates low forced vital capacity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient with possible lung cancer who has just returned after bronchoscopy. After bronchoscopy, the patient may have decreased cough and gag reflexes, necessitating immediate assessment for airway patency to prevent potential complications. The other patients do not exhibit urgent clinical manifestations or have undergone recent procedures that require immediate attention. Therefore, they can be assessed after ensuring the safety and stability of the patient who has just returned after bronchoscopy.

4. The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or healthcare providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? (Berman & Snyder, 2012, p. 713)

• A. Eliminate the reservoir
• B. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
• C. Block the portal of entry into the host
• D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent the spread of infection from a chronic carrier, the nurse should focus on blocking the portal of exit from the reservoir, which is the carrier person. By preventing the movement of the organism from the reservoir, the infection can be contained. Eliminating the reservoir is not feasible in this case as the carrier is a chronic carrier. Blocking the portal of entry into the host or decreasing the susceptibility of the host would only impact individual prevention and not the spread from the carrier to others.

5. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

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