Nursing Elites

1. In which of the following ways can a healthcare provider promote the sense of taste for an older adult?

• A. Mixing foods together on the dinner tray
• B. Avoiding cologne, air fresheners, or room deodorizers
• C. Encouraging the client to chew food thoroughly
• D. Discouraging the use of salt or seasonings with prepared food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As individuals age, their sense of taste may diminish, impacting the enjoyment of eating. One effective way for a healthcare provider to promote the sense of taste for an older adult is by encouraging them to chew food thoroughly. Thorough chewing increases the contact of food with the taste buds, enhancing the chances of experiencing the flavors. Mixing foods together on the dinner tray may not necessarily enhance taste perception. Avoiding strong scents like cologne, air fresheners, or room deodorizers is more related to olfactory senses rather than taste. Discouraging the use of salt or seasonings can further diminish the taste experience for older adults who may already have reduced taste sensitivity.

2. During the general survey, what action is a component of the assessment?

• A. Observing the patient's body stature and nutritional status
• B. Interpreting the subjective information reported by the patient
• C. Measuring the patient's temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure
• D. Observing specific body systems during the physical assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the general survey, the nurse assesses the patient's overall appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior, which includes observing body stature and nutritional status. Interpreting subjective information reported by the patient is part of the subjective data collection process and not the general survey. Measuring vital signs like temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure is part of a focused physical examination, not the general survey. Additionally, observing specific body systems while performing a physical assessment is more specific and focused than the general survey.

3. While caring for Mr. Charles Y., you see a notation on the nursing care plan that states, 'remind the patient to use the incentive spirometer tid.' This patient will be reminded at which of the following times?

• A. 10:00 AM
• B. 10 am and 2 pm
• C. 10 am, 2 pm, and 6 pm
• D. 10 am, 2 pm, 6 pm, and 10 pm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abbreviation 'tid' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day. In this case, the patient should be reminded to use the incentive spirometer at 10 am, 2 pm, and 6 pm. Option A, '10 am,' is too infrequent for tid dosing. Option B, '10 am and 2 pm,' is missing the third reminder at 6 pm. Option D, '10 am, 2 pm, 6 pm, and 10 pm,' includes an additional time that is not part of the standard tid dosing schedule.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. The nurse is reviewing the hot/cold theory of health and illness. Which statement best describes the basic tenets of this theory?

• A. The causation of illness is based on supernatural forces that influence the humors of the body.
• B. Herbs and medicines are classified based on their physical characteristics of hot and cold and the humors of the body.
• C. The four humors of the body consist of blood, yellow bile, black bile, and phlegm.
• D. The treatment of disease consists of adding or subtracting cold, heat, dryness, or wetness to restore the balance of the humors of the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The hot/cold theory of health and illness is based on the four humors of the body: blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile. These humors regulate the basic bodily functions, described in terms of temperature, dryness, and moisture. The treatment of disease in this theory involves adding or subtracting cold, heat, dryness, or wetness to restore the balance of the humors. Choice A is incorrect as the theory is not based on supernatural forces but on the balance of bodily humors. Choice B is incorrect as herbs and medicines are not classified solely based on their physical characteristics of hot and cold in this theory. Choice C is incorrect as the four humors are blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile, not spiritual connectedness or social aspects. Therefore, the correct choice is D, as it accurately reflects a foundational tenet of the hot/cold theory of health and illness.

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