Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating the preoperative teaching of a client scheduled for arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament repair, which statement by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. I will use crutches to keep my weight off my knee
• B. I will stay home until a wheelchair is delivered
• C. I can use the trapeze bar and side rails on the bed to help me turn regularly
• D. I can put my full weight on my foot starting the day after surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using crutches indicates an understanding of weight-bearing restrictions post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for a wheelchair is not related to postoperative mobility instructions. Choice C is incorrect as turning in bed using the trapeze bar and side rails does not address weight-bearing restrictions. Choice D is incorrect because putting full weight on the foot immediately after surgery contradicts the need to keep weight off the knee.

2. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?

• A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
• B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
• C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
• D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.

3. Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
• B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
• D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods. Oxygen toxicity can occur when high levels of oxygen are given for a prolonged period. It is important to monitor and adjust the oxygen levels as needed to prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because administering a sedative to slow the respiratory rate does not directly prevent oxygen toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as removing the nasal cannula during the night can compromise the client's oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect as running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity; instead, it may introduce risks associated with the hydration source.

4. When the nurse enters the room to change the dressing of a male client with cancer, he asks, 'Have you ever been with someone when they died?' What is the nurse's best response to him?

• A. Yes, I have. Do you have some questions about dying?
• B. Several times. Now, let's get your dressing changed.
• C. A few times. It was peaceful and there was no pain.
• D. Yes, but you're doing great. Are you concerned about dying?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's question and open the door for further discussion by asking if they have questions about dying. This approach allows the nurse to address the client's concerns and fears, promoting open communication and providing emotional support. Choices B and C do not encourage further dialogue about the client's feelings and concerns regarding death. Choice D briefly acknowledges the question but does not actively invite the client to express their thoughts and emotions regarding dying.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that the client's dialysate output is less than the input and that the client's abdomen is distended. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Turn the client from side to side
• B. Increase the dwell time of the dialysis
• C. Reposition the client
• D. Milk the catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is turning the client from side to side. This helps to facilitate drainage in peritoneal dialysis. Turning the client can aid in redistributing the dialysate and promoting better drainage. Increasing the dwell time of the dialysis (choice B) may not address the immediate issue of inadequate drainage. Repositioning the client (choice C) might not be as effective as turning the client from side to side. Milking the catheter (choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to complications. In this situation, the priority is to facilitate drainage to address the distended abdomen.

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