HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula
- A. Every four to six hours
- B. Continuously
- C. In a bolus
- D. Every hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering enteral feeding through a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula continuously. Continuous feeding is essential for optimal nutrient absorption and to prevent complications. Administering the formula every four to six hours, in a bolus, or every hour may lead to inadequate nutrition, improper absorption, and an increased risk of complications such as aspiration or dumping syndrome, making these choices incorrect.
2. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Phosphate
- D. Albumin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.
3. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
- A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
- B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
- C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
- D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.
4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- C. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
- D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-sodium diet. The client's family has requested to bring in some of the client's favorite foods. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend the family members to omit?
- A. Boiled rice
- B. Italian bread
- C. Broiled salmon filet
- D. Pickled beets
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Pickled beets. Pickled foods often contain high levels of sodium, which should be avoided in a low-sodium diet. Boiled rice, Italian bread, and broiled salmon filet are generally lower in sodium compared to pickled beets, making them more suitable choices for a client on a low-sodium diet.
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