Nursing Elites

1. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?

• A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
• B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
• C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.

2. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
• B. Give the client Cogentin
• C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
• D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

3. Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:

• A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• B. Radiology, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• C. Rest, Ice, Cast, Elevation
• D. Radiology, Ice, Cast, Elevation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.

4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

5. A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam?

• A. Start the hepatitis B immunization series.
• B. Teach the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin.
• C. Ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C.
• D. Test for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam, according to CDC guidelines, is to ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C. CDC guidelines recommend screening patients born between 1945 and 1965 for hepatitis C due to the high prevalence of undiagnosed cases in this age group. Starting the hepatitis B immunization series is not necessary as the patient already had hepatitis A infection. Teaching the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin is not indicated in this scenario. Testing for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM) is not needed as the patient has already had hepatitis A.

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