Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?

• A. "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."?
• B. "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe."?
• C. "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."?
• D. "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.

2. You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese.
• B. Avoid drugs such as Tagamet, nitroglycerin, and Nifedipine.
• C. Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician.
• D. A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.

3. What is the highest priority for post ECT care?

• A. Observe for confusion
• B. Monitor respiratory status
• C. Reorient to time, place, and person
• D. Document the client's response to the treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority for post ECT care is to monitor respiratory status. This is crucial because a life-threatening side effect of ECT is respiratory arrest. While observing for confusion and reorienting the client are important aspects of post ECT care, they are not as critical as ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Documenting the client's response to treatment is also important for maintaining accurate medical records, but it is not the highest priority immediately post ECT.

4. A client in a long-term care facility tells the nurse, 'My daughter never visits me.' The nurse responds by telling the client that when her own mother was in a long-term care facility, she found it difficult to visit. This is an example of which communication technique?

• A. Empathy
• B. Self-disclosure
• C. Disapproval
• D. False reassurance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Self-disclosure is a therapeutic communication technique that nurses use to build rapport and trust with clients. By sharing personal experiences, nurses can help clients feel understood and encourage them to open up. In this scenario, the nurse sharing her own struggle with visiting her mother demonstrates self-disclosure. Empathy (choice A) involves understanding and sharing the feelings of another, but in this case, the nurse is sharing her own experience rather than focusing solely on the client's emotions. Disapproval (choice C) and false reassurance (choice D) do not apply in this context as the nurse is not expressing disapproval or giving false hope or comfort.

5. Mrs. M has had diabetes for seven years. She has worked hard to control her blood glucose levels and watch her dietary intake. Her physician orders a hemoglobin A1C test. Which of the following best describes the action of this test?

• A. The test determines if the client is anemic and needs iron supplements
• B. The test determines if there is excess glucose building up in the urine
• C. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis
• D. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1C test, also known as a glycated hemoglobin test, determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose. Excess glucose in the bloodstream may cause it to attach to hemoglobin on red blood cells. Because the life of these cells is between 2 and 3 months, the hemoglobin A1C is an accurate measurement of a client's glucose during that time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A relates to anemia and iron supplements, which are not assessed by a hemoglobin A1C test. Choice B mentions excess glucose in the urine, which is typically assessed through a urine glucose test, not the hemoglobin A1C test. Choice C is incorrect as the test is not related to the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis; instead, it specifically measures the amount of hemoglobin that is glycated or coated with glucose.

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