HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, what should the nurse assess?
- A. Assess diaphragmatic breathing.
- B. Assess heart sounds.
- C. Monitor blood oxygen levels.
- D. Check for signs of infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, the nurse should assess diaphragmatic breathing. In RDS, the baby may have difficulty breathing due to immature lungs, leading to shallow, rapid breathing movements. Assessing diaphragmatic breathing directly evaluates the respiratory effort and can help identify the presence of RDS. Choice B, assessing heart sounds, is not specific to diagnosing RDS but could be relevant for other conditions. Choice C, monitoring blood oxygen levels, is important but alone may not confirm RDS. Choice D, checking for signs of infection, is not a direct indicator of RDS but rather suggests a different issue.
2. During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?
- A. Observe the urethral opening on the surface of the penis when the newborn voids.
- B. Perform transillumination of the scrotal sac to visualize shadows of the testes.
- C. Use a fingertip to palpate the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis.
- D. Measure the size of the scrotal sac for length and width.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: If the testes are not palpated in the scrotum, the next step is to check the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis. This technique allows the nurse to determine if the testes are located within the inguinal canal rather than the scrotum. It is essential to assess for the presence of testes in the inguinal canal to ensure proper diagnosis and management of any potential issues related to testicular positioning.
3. The healthcare provider receives a newborn within the first minutes after vaginal delivery and intervenes to establish adequate respirations. What priority issue should the healthcare provider address to ensure the newborn's survival?
- A. Heat loss.
- B. Fluid balance.
- C. Bleeding tendencies.
- D. Hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Immediately after birth, newborns are at high risk for heat loss, which can lead to cold stress and associated complications. Maintaining thermal regulation is crucial to prevent hypothermia and ensure the newborn's survival. By addressing heat loss as a priority issue, the healthcare provider can help stabilize the newborn's temperature and support overall well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority issues immediately after birth. While fluid balance, bleeding tendencies, and hypoglycemia are important considerations in newborn care, heat loss is the primary concern right after delivery to prevent complications related to thermal regulation.
4. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?
- A. Maternal blood pressure.
- B. Level of pain sensation.
- C. Station of presenting part.
- D. Variability of fetal heart rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.
5. The nurse is planning care for a 4-year-old girl diagnosed with a developmental disability. What should be the primary focus of treatment for this child?
- A. Teach her social skills.
- B. Assist in preventing further disability.
- C. Ensure her participation in group activities.
- D. Help her achieve her maximum potential.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary focus of treatment for a child diagnosed with a developmental disability should be helping them achieve their maximum potential. This approach aims to optimize the child's physical, emotional, cognitive, and social abilities, focusing on enhancing their overall well-being and quality of life. By supporting the child in reaching their highest level of functioning, caregivers can promote independence, self-esteem, and personal growth, which are essential components of holistic care for individuals with developmental disabilities. Teaching social skills (choice A) is important but is just one aspect of the comprehensive care needed. Preventing further disability (choice B) may not always be entirely achievable, but maximizing potential is a more realistic goal. Ensuring participation in group activities (choice C) is valuable for social development, but the primary focus should be on overall potential and well-being.
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