Nursing Elites

1. The instructor is teaching a class on basic assessment skills. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stethoscope and its use?

• A. Slope of the earpieces should point forward toward the examiner's nose.
• B. It blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.
• C. The tubing length should be 14 to 18 inches to prevent sound distortion.
• D. Both fit and quality of the stethoscope are important.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The stethoscope does not magnify sound but effectively blocks out extraneous room noises. The correct orientation of the earpieces is with the slope pointing forward toward the examiner's nose, not posteriorly. The tubing length of a stethoscope should ideally be between 14 to 18 inches (36 to 46 cm) to avoid sound distortion. Using tubing longer than this range can distort sound. Both the fit and quality of the stethoscope are crucial for accurate auscultation and assessment, highlighting their significance in clinical practice. Therefore, the correct answer is that the stethoscope blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.

2. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

3. Which of the following is a negative outcome associated with impaired mobility?

• A. Increased amounts of calcium are absorbed from circulation
• B. A drop in blood pressure occurs when rising from a sitting to a standing position
• C. The amount of mucus in the bronchi and lungs decreases
• D. The vessel walls of the circulatory system thicken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with impaired mobility may develop changes in body systems that put them at risk of further illness or injury. One negative outcome associated with impaired mobility is orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops significantly when moving from a sitting or lying position to a standing position. This drop in blood pressure can lead to symptoms such as dizziness or fainting. This occurs because blood circulates more slowly or pools in the distal extremities due to impaired mobility. Choice A is incorrect because increased calcium absorption is not a typical negative outcome associated with impaired mobility. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in mucus in the bronchi and lungs is not a common negative outcome of impaired mobility. Choice D is incorrect because thickening of vessel walls in the circulatory system is not directly associated with impaired mobility.

4. To accurately assess a patient's respiration rate, which of the following methods would be BEST?

• A. Tell the patient, 'Please remain silent while I count your number of breaths.'
• B. Count respirations at the same time you are counting the pulse rate
• C. Count the pulse rate for one minute, then, while keeping your index fingers on the patient's radial artery, count the respirations for an additional minute.
• D. Count the patient's respiration rate, then take the patient's temperature, and then take the pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most accurate method to assess a patient's respiration rate is to count the breaths simultaneously while counting the pulse rate. This approach ensures that the patient is unaware of the specific focus on their breathing, preventing any conscious alteration in breathing patterns. Choice A is incorrect because informing the patient may lead to altered breathing as the patient may consciously change their breathing pattern. Choice C involves counting the pulse rate first, which is not necessary for assessing respiration rate. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary steps such as taking the patient's temperature before counting respiration rate, which adds no value to accurately assessing the respiration rate.

5. What is a common error when taking a pulse?

• A. Placing the index finger on the radial artery located on the thumb side of a patient's wrist.
• B. Noting a pulse as 'weak' when the pulsation disappears upon adding pressure.
• C. Counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four.
• D. None of the above will cause errors.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four. To accurately assess a patient's heart rate or pulse, it is crucial to count the pulse for a full minute. Counting for only 15 seconds and then multiplying by four may result in an inaccurate heart rate calculation. This approach could miss arrhythmias or intermittent pulsations that could be vital indicators of the patient's condition. Placing the index finger on the radial artery, which is located on the thumb side of the patient's wrist, is the correct technique for taking a pulse. Noting a pulse as 'weak' when the pulsation disappears upon adding pressure is a valid observation and not an error in itself. Therefore, the most common error in this scenario is incorrectly calculating the pulse rate by multiplying a 15-second count by four.

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