Nursing Elites

1. When is the best time for the nurse to attempt to elicit the Moro reflex during an infant examination?

• A. When the infant is sleeping
• B. At the end of the examination
• C. Before auscultation of the thorax
• D. At about the middle of the examination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is best elicited at the end of the examination because it can cause the infant to cry. This reflex is triggered by a sudden change in position or loud noise, and it involves the infant's arms extending and then coming back together as if embracing. By eliciting this reflex at the end of the examination, the nurse can observe the infant's response and ensure that the examination is completed without unnecessary distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Moro reflex is typically elicited at the end of the examination to avoid disrupting the assessment process and causing unnecessary discomfort to the infant.

2. Which of the following is an example of an environmental hazard that may put the healthcare professional at risk of injury?

• A. Loud noise from the hospital maintenance system
• B. Airborne powder containing latex
• C. Chemicals containing ethylene oxide
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Healthcare professionals, including nurses, are exposed to various environmental hazards that may negatively impact their physical or mental health. Hazards come in several forms, such as loud noise from hospital systems, which can damage hearing; airborne latex powder, leading to allergic reactions; and chemicals like ethylene oxide, a sterilizing agent that can cause cancer. Therefore, all the options listed pose risks to healthcare professionals, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choice A, loud noise, is a hazard that can affect hearing health. Choice B, airborne latex powder, can trigger allergic responses. Choice C, chemicals containing ethylene oxide, are hazardous and can lead to serious health issues. Each option represents a distinct environmental risk that healthcare professionals should be aware of and take precautions against.

3. A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills
• B. The client develops dependent edema in the extremities
• C. The client has a seizure
• D. The client's heart rate drops to 60 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.

4. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

5. When assessing a patient's pulse, which of the following characteristics would the nurse also notice?

• A. Force
• B. Pallor
• C. Capillary refill time
• D. Timing in the cardiac cycle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's pulse, the nurse should observe characteristics such as rate, rhythm, and force. Force refers to the strength or amplitude of the pulse, which provides important information about cardiac output. Pallor is the paleness of the skin and is not directly related to pulse assessment. Capillary refill time is used to assess peripheral perfusion and is not specifically part of pulse assessment. Timing in the cardiac cycle is a broader concept and not a characteristic directly assessed during a pulse examination. Therefore, choice A, 'Force,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the standard parameters evaluated during pulse assessment.

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