NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The nurse is reviewing the record of a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse should expect to note which finding documented in the child's record?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypotension
- D. Grossly bloody urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, a key finding documented in the child's record is weight gain due to massive edema. While urine may appear dark, foamy, and frothy, grossly bloody urine is not expected as only microscopic hematuria is present. Additionally, urine output is decreased, and hypertension is likely to be present. Therefore, the correct answer is weight gain as it aligns with the characteristic presentation of nephrotic syndrome.
2. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?
- A. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent
- B. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound
- C. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing
- D. Keep the head of the patient's bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with an open stab wound to the chest is to tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. This dressing technique allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering the pleural space during inspiration, helping to prevent tension pneumothorax. Placing the patient so that the left chest is dependent or covering the wound with an occlusive dressing can trap air in the pleural space, leading to tension pneumothorax. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees helps facilitate breathing and is not the first action to take when managing an open chest wound.
3. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:
- A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
- B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
- C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
- D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.
4. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?
- A. Bowel sounds are present.
- B. Grey Turner sign resolves.
- C. Electrolyte levels are normal.
- D. Abdominal pain is decreased.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain. Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.
5. A healthcare provider calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the healthcare provider most likely observed?
- A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to stimuli.
- B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.
- C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the healthcare provider hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs.
- D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.' Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. Clinical signs and symptoms for pulmonary embolism are nonspecific; therefore, patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism"?because of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, or chest pain or the presence of risk factors for pulmonary embolism"?must undergo diagnostic tests until the diagnosis is ascertained or eliminated or an alternative diagnosis is confirmed. Choices A, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with a pulmonary embolism, making them incorrect.
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