Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check for tube placement
• B. Crush the medications
• C. Flush the tube with water
• D. Administer the medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when administering medications to a client with a nasogastric tube is to check for tube placement. This is crucial to ensure that the medications are delivered to the correct location within the gastrointestinal tract. Checking the tube placement helps prevent complications such as medication entering the lungs if the tube is misplaced. Crushing the medications (choice B) or flushing the tube with water (choice C) should only be done after confirming the correct tube placement. Administering the medications (choice D) without verifying the tube placement can lead to serious consequences.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.

3. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a male client who has chronic renal failure. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Client reports difficulty breathing
• B. Client reports shortness of breath when lying flat
• C. Client reports swelling in the feet and ankles
• D. Client reports a metallic taste in the mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic renal failure, difficulty breathing is the most critical finding to report. This symptom may indicate fluid overload or pulmonary edema, which can be life-threatening. Shortness of breath when lying flat (orthopnea) is also concerning but less urgent than difficulty breathing. Swelling in the feet and ankles (edema) is a common finding in renal failure but may not be as immediately critical as difficulty breathing. A metallic taste in the mouth is associated with uremia, a common complication of chronic renal failure, but it is not as urgent as respiratory distress.

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