Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
• B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
• C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
• D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.

2. A client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis has blood drawn for several serum laboratory tests. Which of the following serum amylase values, noted by the nurse reviewing the results, would be expected in this client at this time?

• A. 48 units/L
• B. 97 units/L
• C. 150 units/L
• D. 395 units/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "395 units/L." The normal serum amylase range is 25 to 151 units/L. In acute pancreatitis, the amylase level is greatly increased, typically exceeding the upper limit of the normal range. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range of serum amylase levels and would not be expected in a client with acute pancreatitis.

3. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:

• A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
• B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test
• C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure
• D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.

4. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?

• A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
• B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
• C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
• D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.

5. A client who was in a motor vehicle collision was admitted to the hospital, and the right knee was placed in skeletal traction. The nurse has documented this nursing diagnosis in the client's medical record: 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction.' Which nursing intervention is indicated based on this diagnosis statement?

• A. Release the traction every 4 hours to provide skin care.
• B. Turn the client for back care while suspending traction.
• C. Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.
• D. Give back care after the client is released from traction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention indicated based on the nursing diagnosis 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction' is to provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction. This intervention is crucial for maintaining the client's skin integrity and preventing potential complications. Releasing the traction every 4 hours (Choice A) may disrupt the treatment plan and compromise the effectiveness of traction. Turning the client for back care while suspending traction (Choice B) does not address the need for skin care while the client is in traction. Giving back care after the client is released from traction (Choice D) neglects the immediate need to prevent skin impairment while in traction. Therefore, providing back and skin care while maintaining the traction (Choice C) is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario.

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