NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is
- A. maintaining normal respiratory function.
- B. expressing satisfaction with pain control.
- C. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
- D. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.
2. A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?
- A. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago
- B. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day
- C. The patient presents as severely depressed
- D. The patient has a rash and pruritus on his arms and legs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is when the patient states he has been having diarrhea every day. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity. The other options, such as a manic episode, severe depression, or rash and pruritus, are not directly associated with an increased risk of lithium toxicity.
3. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?
- A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
- B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
- C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
- D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.
4. A 4-year-old hospitalized child begins to have a seizure while playing with hard plastic toys in the hallway. Of the following nursing actions, which one should the nurse do first?
- A. Place the child in the nearest bed
- B. Administer IV medication to slow down the seizure
- C. Place a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth
- D. Remove the child's toys from the immediate area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority nursing actions are to ensure the safety of the child and maintain airway patency. Placing objects in the child's mouth, like a padded tongue blade, is not recommended as it can lead to injury or obstruction of the airway. Moving the child to a bed is also not the immediate priority during a seizure. Administering IV medication to slow down the seizure is not typically done as the initial action. Therefore, the correct first nursing action is to remove any potential hazards, such as the hard plastic toys, from the immediate area to prevent injury during the seizure.
5. A patient underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours ago and presents to the emergency department with increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?
- A. Bowel perforation
- B. Viral gastroenteritis
- C. Colon cancer
- D. Diverticulitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy, with signs such as progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia indicating advancing peritonitis. Although colonoscopic perforation is rare (0.03% to 0.7% incidence), it can lead to high mortality and morbidity rates. Viral gastroenteritis (Choice B) typically presents with symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, but it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. Colon cancer (Choice C) and diverticulitis (Choice D) are important conditions but are less likely to present acutely after colonoscopy compared to bowel perforation.
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