the nurse is developing a plan of care for a 6 year old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis the nurse should include which priority interven
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. When developing a plan of care for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis, which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis should be to encourage limited activity and provide safety measures. In glomerulonephritis, children tend to restrict their activities voluntarily due to fatigue during the active phase of the disease. Catheterization for intake and output monitoring may predispose the child to infection and is not the primary intervention. Encouraging the child to talk about feelings related to the illness may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-year-old; instead, children can express feelings through play. It is important to limit visitors to allow the child to rest and recover rather than encouraging classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.

2. Mr. B is recovering from a surgical procedure that was performed four days ago. The nurse's assessment finds this client coughing up rust-colored sputum; his respiratory rate is 28/minute with expiratory grunting, and his lung sounds have coarse crackles on auscultation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of coughing up rust-colored sputum, increased respiratory rate, expiratory grunting, and coarse crackles on lung auscultation suggests the development of pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by lung tissue inflammation or infection, often caused by various organisms. Symptoms may include productive cough, dyspnea, and abnormal breath sounds. Tuberculosis (Choice A) typically presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats and is less likely in this acute post-operative setting. Pulmonary edema (Choice B) is characterized by pink, frothy sputum, crackles throughout the lungs, and typically occurs in the context of heart failure. Histoplasmosis (Choice D) is a fungal infection that usually presents with flu-like symptoms and is less likely to manifest with the specific respiratory findings described in this case.

3. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.

4. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.

5. The mother of a newborn infant with hypospadias asks the nurse why circumcision cannot be performed. Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The reason circumcision is not performed in a newborn with hypospadias is that the dorsal foreskin tissue will be needed for the surgical repair of hypospadias. Delaying circumcision allows for the preservation of tissue that will be crucial for the corrective surgery. This surgical repair is typically done within the first year of life to minimize the psychological impact on the child. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific reason for delaying circumcision in this case.

Similar Questions

A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?
The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder?
When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses