Nursing Elites

1. When developing a plan of care for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis, which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Encourage limited activity and provide safety measures.
• B. Catheterize the child to monitor intake and output strictly.
• C. Encourage the child to talk about feelings related to illness.
• D. Encourage classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis should be to encourage limited activity and provide safety measures. In glomerulonephritis, children tend to restrict their activities voluntarily due to fatigue during the active phase of the disease. Catheterization for intake and output monitoring may predispose the child to infection and is not the primary intervention. Encouraging the child to talk about feelings related to the illness may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-year-old; instead, children can express feelings through play. It is important to limit visitors to allow the child to rest and recover rather than encouraging classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.

2. A nurse admits a 3-week-old infant to the special care nursery with a diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. As the nurse reviews the birth history, which data would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Gestational age assessment suggested growth retardation
• B. Meconium was cleared from the airway at delivery
• C. Phototherapy was used to treat Rh incompatibility
• D. The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks.' Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a condition primarily caused by therapies like positive-pressure ventilation used in the treatment of lung disease. This leads to lung damage and subsequent respiratory problems. Choices A, B, and C are not consistent with the diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Gestational age assessment suggesting growth retardation is more indicative of intrauterine growth restriction, clearing meconium from the airway at delivery is related to potential respiratory issues at birth, and phototherapy for Rh incompatibility is unrelated to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

3. Signs and symptoms of stroke may include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm, or leg.
• B. Sudden confusion.
• C. Sudden headache with no known cause.
• D. Hypotension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypotension is not a typical sign or symptom of an acute stroke. The correct signs and symptoms of a stroke include sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm, or leg, sudden confusion, and a sudden headache with no known cause. Hypotension, which refers to low blood pressure, is not a common indicator of a stroke. It is important to differentiate between hypotension and hypertension in the context of stroke symptoms, as hypertension (high blood pressure) is actually a risk factor for strokes. Sudden weakness, numbness, confusion, and headache are signs associated with a stroke due to a disruption in blood flow to the brain. Hypotension, on the other hand, primarily indicates low blood pressure and is not directly linked to the typical presentation of a stroke.

4. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?

• A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
• B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
• C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
• D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.

5. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Calcium
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Amylase
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.

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