the nurse performing an admission assessment on a 2 year old child who has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome notes that which most common charact
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NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. During an admission assessment on a 2-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, the nurse notes that which characteristic is most commonly associated with this syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome in children is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema. The most common manifestation is generalized edema due to protein loss in the urine, leading to decreased plasma oncotic pressure. This results in fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Hypertension is not a typical feature of nephrotic syndrome in children. Increased urinary output is not a common finding; instead, children with nephrotic syndrome often have decreased urine output due to decreased renal perfusion. The presence of frank, bright red blood in the urine is not a typical characteristic of nephrotic syndrome but may indicate a different renal condition such as glomerulonephritis.

2. A patient with a cast on the right leg is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning for the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A foul-smelling odor emanating from the cast is a concerning finding as it indicates the possibility of infection or the presence of a pressure ulcer. These conditions can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. It is crucial for the nurse to investigate further and take appropriate actions to prevent potential harm to the patient. The other options do not directly indicate a risk of infection or complications associated with the cast. Itching and discomfort are common complaints due to wearing a cast, and the patient being on antibiotics may be part of their treatment plan for an unrelated condition. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds is within the normal range and would not be a cause for immediate concern in this scenario.

3. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

4. The nurse is caring for a post-surgical client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis. Which intervention is an effective preventive measure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging range of motion and ambulation is an effective preventive measure for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical clients. Mobility helps improve blood circulation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Elastic stockings help prevent blood pooling and clotting in the legs by providing external pressure to support venous return. Massaging the legs twice daily may help with circulation but is not as effective as promoting movement and ambulation. Placing pillows under the knees is a comfort measure and does not directly address the prevention of deep vein thrombosis.

5. A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would be most concerned about the assessment finding of an Intracranial Pressure (ICP) reading of 22 mmHg in a patient 72 hours post-stroke. Elevated ICP can indicate increased risk of edema and further brain damage. A target ICP should ideally be maintained at less than or equal to 15-20 mmHg. While the other options may also be important to monitor, an elevated ICP poses a more immediate threat to the patient's neurological status and requires prompt attention.

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