Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is conducting a health assessment for a family in a rural area. Which intervention should the healthcare provider prioritize to address the family's health needs?

• A. Providing information on local healthcare resources
• B. Teaching the family about proper nutrition
• C. Assisting the family in scheduling medical appointments
• D. Connecting the family with transportation services

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In rural areas, access to healthcare may be limited. Providing information on local healthcare resources is essential to ensure the family can access necessary services. While proper nutrition (choice B) and medical appointments (choice C) are important, having access to healthcare resources is fundamental. Transportation services (choice D) may be helpful but addressing the availability of healthcare resources should be the priority.

2. A school nurse is organizing a vaccination clinic for middle school students. Which vaccine is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. hepatitis B
• B. tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap)
• C. varicella
• D. measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important vaccine for the school nurse to include in the vaccination clinic for middle school students is the tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. Tdap is recommended for preteens as part of the routine vaccination schedule to protect against these serious diseases. Hepatitis B, varicella, and MMR vaccines are also important but for this specific age group, Tdap takes precedence to ensure protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

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