Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of an Addisonian crisis?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Severe hypotension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an Addisonian crisis, there is a lack of adrenal hormones leading to severe hypotension. Hypertension (choice A) is not a typical sign of Addisonian crisis but can occur in conditions like pheochromocytoma. Hyperglycemia (choice B) is not a characteristic sign of an Addisonian crisis. Tachycardia (choice D) may occur as a compensatory mechanism in response to hypotension, but severe bradycardia is more common in an Addisonian crisis.

2. A client with Cushing's syndrome is scheduled for surgery to remove an adrenal tumor. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications postoperatively?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative hypotension is a common complication after adrenal tumor removal in a client with Cushing's syndrome. This occurs due to the sudden withdrawal of cortisol, which leads to a relative adrenal insufficiency state. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is more common preoperatively due to excessive cortisol levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and Hyponatremia (Choice D) are also associated with Cushing's syndrome but are less likely to be immediate postoperative complications compared to hypotension.

3. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with DM who has hyperglycemia. The priority nursing diagnosis would be:

• A. High risk for deficient fluid volume
• B. Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
• D. Disabled family coping: compromised

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) experiencing hyperglycemia would be 'High risk for deficient fluid volume.' Hyperglycemia can lead to osmotic diuresis, causing significant fluid loss and an increased risk of deficient fluid volume. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate physiological concern related to fluid balance.\n\nChoice B, 'Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment,' focuses on the client's understanding of DM, which is important but not the priority when the client is at risk of fluid volume deficit.\n\nChoice C, 'Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements,' pertains to inadequate intake of nutrients, which is not the priority concern when fluid volume deficit poses a more immediate threat.\n\nChoice D, 'Disabled family coping: compromised,' addresses a psychosocial aspect and is not the priority over the critical physiological issue of fluid volume deficit in a client with hyperglycemia.

4. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia indicated by which of the following signs?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Tremors
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic manifestation of hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood. After an adrenalectomy, where one adrenal gland is removed, there may be a risk of hyperkalemia due to altered hormone regulation. Tremors (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia but may be seen in conditions like hypocalcemia. Diaphoresis (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating and constipation is a common gastrointestinal issue, neither directly related to potassium imbalances.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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