Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of an Addisonian crisis?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Severe hypotension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an Addisonian crisis, there is a lack of adrenal hormones leading to severe hypotension. Hypertension (choice A) is not a typical sign of Addisonian crisis but can occur in conditions like pheochromocytoma. Hyperglycemia (choice B) is not a characteristic sign of an Addisonian crisis. Tachycardia (choice D) may occur as a compensatory mechanism in response to hypotension, but severe bradycardia is more common in an Addisonian crisis.

2. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions?

• A. Resource allocation
• B. Monitoring
• C. Job analysis and redesign
• D. Planning for the future

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Planning for the future. In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in decisional activities related to planning for the future. This involves analyzing potential impacts of policy changes and community shifts on the unit's functioning and making decisions based on predictions and foresight. Option A, resource allocation, focuses on distributing resources effectively. Option B, monitoring, involves observing and assessing current activities. Option C, job analysis and redesign, pertains to evaluating and restructuring roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not the primary focus of the scenario provided.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with DM for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if blood glucose levels are not adequately managed?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis
• C. Pedal edema
• D. Proteinuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proteinuria is the correct answer because it indicates kidney damage, which is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Elevated blood glucose levels over time can damage the kidneys, leading to proteinuria. Polyuria (excessive urination) is a symptom of diabetes but does not specifically indicate a risk for chronic complications. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and pedal edema (swelling of the lower limbs) are not direct indicators of chronic complications related to uncontrolled diabetes.

4. Which of the following statements is true regarding followership and leadership?

• A. Effective leadership is more important than followership.
• B. Good leaders do not need to be good followers.
• C. A good follower is not just skilled but also self-directed.
• D. Critical thinking is only required for effective leadership.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'A good follower is not just skilled but also self-directed.' This statement is true as being self-directed complements effective leadership. Good followers possess the ability to take initiative, work independently, and contribute positively to a team without constant supervision. Option A is incorrect because followership is equally important as leadership in achieving group success. Option B is incorrect as good leaders often demonstrate qualities of good followership, such as being able to listen, collaborate, and support others. Option D is incorrect because critical thinking is essential for both effective leadership and followership, not exclusively for leadership roles.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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