the nurse is caring for a 7 year old with acute glomerulonephritis agn findings include moderate edema and oliguria serum blood urea nitrogen and crea
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). Findings include moderate edema and oliguria. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are elevated. What dietary modifications are most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased sodium and potassium.' In acute glomerulonephritis, managing edema and oliguria is crucial. Reducing sodium and potassium intake helps achieve this by decreasing fluid retention and workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Decreased carbohydrates and fat,' is not directly related to managing AGN. Choice C, 'Increased potassium and protein,' is incorrect as increasing potassium can be harmful in kidney conditions. Choice D, 'Increased sodium and fluids,' is also incorrect as it can exacerbate edema and hypertension in AGN.

2. For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.

3. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

4. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

5. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.

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