NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a 36-year-old patient with pancreatic cancer. Which nursing action is the highest priority?
- A. Offer psychological support for depression.
- B. Offer high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices.
- C. Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed.
- D. Teach about the need to avoid scratching any pruritic areas.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed. Pain management is the highest priority in this scenario as effective pain control is essential for the patient's overall well-being. Pain relief will not only improve the patient's comfort but also enhance their ability to eat, follow dietary recommendations, and be open to psychological support. Offering psychological support for depression (Choice A) is important but addressing pain takes precedence. While providing high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices (Choice B) is crucial, it is secondary to managing pain. Teaching about the need to avoid scratching pruritic areas (Choice D) is relevant but not the highest priority in this situation where pain management is critical for the patient's quality of life.
2. The nurse is caring for a 73-year-old man with cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern?
- A. The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain upon palpation.
- B. The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended.
- C. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day.
- D. The patient's skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels on the abdomen.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most concerning data obtained by the nurse is the patient's hands flapping back and forth when the arms are extended, indicating asterixis, which is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. This condition can progress to hepatic coma and requires immediate attention. The presence of spider angiomas and right upper-quadrant abdominal pain are common findings in cirrhosis and do not warrant urgent intervention. Although ascites and weight gain suggest the need for treatment, they are not as alarming as the neurologic manifestations seen in hepatic encephalopathy.
3. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?
- A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
- B. "I can't see on my left side."?
- C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
- D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.
4. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
- A. The patient reports no chest pain.
- B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
- D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.
5. The nurse is collecting data on a child recently diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which question to the mother should elicit data associated with the cause of this disease?
- A. ''Has your child had any nausea or diarrhea?''
- B. ''Have you noticed any rashes on your child?''
- C. ''Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?''
- D. ''Did your child sustain any injuries to the kidney area?''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?' Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection is a known cause of glomerulonephritis. In this condition, the child typically becomes ill with streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract, and then after 1 to 2 weeks, symptoms of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis can develop. This question aims to gather crucial information related to a potential trigger for glomerulonephritis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not pertain to a common cause or associated symptom of glomerulonephritis.
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