NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?
- A. Nadolol (Corgard)
- B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
- C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
- D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 �F (15 and 30 �C) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.
2. Why is it important to genotype HCV before initiating drug therapy?
- A. Side effects of nucleotide analogs
- B. Measures for improving the appetite
- C. Ways to increase activity and exercise
- D. Administering alpha-interferon (Intron A)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Genotyping of HCV plays a crucial role in managing treatment as it helps determine the most effective therapy for the specific viral strain. It allows healthcare providers to personalize treatment regimens and predict response rates. The statement about acute HCV infection converting to chronic state is accurate, highlighting the need for appropriate management. Immune globulin and vaccines are not available for HCV, and Ribavirin is commonly used for chronic HCV infection. Improving appetite is essential in liver health as adequate nutritional intake supports hepatocyte regeneration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific importance of genotyping in HCV treatment or the significance of appetite improvement in liver function.
3. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:
- A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery
- B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator
- C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow
- D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is performed during a cardiac catheterization to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery is typically done through procedures like aorto-coronary bypass graft (ACBG) rather than PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is a different procedure used for managing cardiac arrhythmias. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart refers to procedures like echocardiography or cardiac MRI, not PTCA.
4. A patient's chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Extreme Thirst
- C. Weight gain
- D. Acetone breath smell
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute ketoacidosis, a patient typically experiences rapid weight loss due to the body burning fat and muscle for energy in the absence of sufficient insulin. Therefore, weight gain would not be expected. Vomiting may occur due to the metabolic disturbances associated with ketoacidosis. Extreme thirst is a common symptom as the body tries to compensate for dehydration. Acetone breath smell is a classic sign of ketoacidosis as acetone is one of the ketones produced during this condition.
5. A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?
- A. Start an IV and administer a 1-liter bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution
- B. Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM
- C. Administer 15 mg diphenhydramine IM
- D. Monitor the client until help arrives
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access