Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 3-year-old child who is hospitalized with dehydration. The child is now receiving IV fluids and has started to produce urine. What is the best indicator that the child’s dehydration is improving?

• A. The child’s urine output has increased
• B. The child’s skin turgor is normal
• C. The child’s weight has increased
• D. The child’s vital signs are stable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the child's hydration status is improving. Adequate urine output signifies that the kidneys are functioning properly and that the body is effectively eliminating waste and excess fluids, indicating improved hydration levels. The other options are not as direct indicators of hydration status. Skin turgor and weight changes can be influenced by various factors, and stable vital signs do not specifically reflect hydration status.

2. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?

• A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
• B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
• C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.

3. A 6-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the legs and abdomen. The child is crying and states that the pain is unbearable. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Apply warm compresses to the painful areas
• B. Administer prescribed pain medication
• C. Encourage the child to drink fluids
• D. Monitor the child’s oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority to alleviate the child's suffering. Administering the prescribed pain medication is crucial to address the severe pain experienced by the child. Warm compresses, encouraging fluid intake, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions but should follow the priority of pain management in this situation.

4. A 4-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with a complaint of cough and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child has been using a rescue inhaler more frequently over the past week. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Review the child’s asthma action plan
• B. Administer a dose of the rescue inhaler
• C. Instruct the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in one week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action for the nurse is to review the child's asthma action plan. By doing so, the nurse can assess the current asthma management, ensure that the child is using the rescue inhaler correctly, and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. Reviewing the asthma action plan helps in identifying triggers, proper use of medications, and when to seek medical help. Administering a dose of the rescue inhaler without assessing the current management plan may not address the underlying issue. Instructing the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication without proper evaluation can lead to inappropriate medication adjustments. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in one week is not the immediate action needed to address the child's current symptoms.

5. A 6 year old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing and has a 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Based on these findings, what actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and deep breath.
• C. Report findings to the health care provider.
• D. Determine what triggers precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator will help open the airways and improve breathing.

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