HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 3-year-old child who is hospitalized with dehydration. The child is now receiving IV fluids and has started to produce urine. What is the best indicator that the child’s dehydration is improving?
- A. The child’s urine output has increased
- B. The child’s skin turgor is normal
- C. The child’s weight has increased
- D. The child’s vital signs are stable
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the child's hydration status is improving. Adequate urine output signifies that the kidneys are functioning properly and that the body is effectively eliminating waste and excess fluids, indicating improved hydration levels. The other options are not as direct indicators of hydration status. Skin turgor and weight changes can be influenced by various factors, and stable vital signs do not specifically reflect hydration status.
2. After observing a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate followed by two ounces of orange juice, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and feed the infant.
- B. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with formula instead of orange juice.
- C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing in the next 30 minutes after the iron.
- D. Give positive feedback about the way she administered the sulfate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Providing positive feedback to the mother for correctly administering the iron supplements is essential as it reinforces proper medication administration practices. This encouragement can help build the mother's confidence and ensure that she continues to administer the supplements correctly in the future, promoting the infant's health and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no need to suggest altering the administration method, changing the liquid used, or restricting feeding immediately after administering the iron supplement. Giving positive feedback is the most appropriate action in this scenario to acknowledge the mother's correct administration technique.
3. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
- A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
- B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
- C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
- D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.
4. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
- B. Review the child’s immunization record
- C. Measure the child’s temperature
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.
5. A 14-year-old adolescent with a history of substance abuse is brought to the emergency department by the parents, who suspect that the adolescent has relapsed. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening
- B. Discuss treatment options with the parents
- C. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the adolescent
- D. Administer a medication to reverse the effects of the substance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority action should be to obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening. This step is crucial in identifying the substances involved in the relapse, which will guide appropriate treatment strategies. By knowing the specific substances, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans effectively. Establishing a therapeutic relationship and discussing treatment options come after obtaining necessary diagnostic information to ensure a comprehensive care plan. Administering a medication to reverse substance effects is not the initial priority; identification of the substances through toxicology screening should precede any treatment intervention.
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